4: Jesus - Saved by Grace

Note: This post will only make sense if everything on this blog before this post is read first.

Another major way that Jesus is like other Christians is that Jesus also needs saving, just like every other person. Jesus sinned in his past lives as Adam and David, though obviously not as Christ. How then, can Jesus be saved? Did Jesus save himself? Did he pay for his own past sin on the cross? The Bible is not silent on these questions and explicitly explains exactly how Jesus is saved. While Jesus is involved in his salvation, he did not save himself. As Ephesians 2:8-9 says, “For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this is not from yourselves, it is the gift of God— not by works, so that no one can boast.” God ensured that Jesus would also experience the grace of God in his salvation, and that he too with all other Christians would be unable to boast. 

The below theology explains the above paragraph:

A.      God: Jesus’ Savior

Jesus, at the very least, needed God to save him. God is the ultimate savior of all people, including Jesus (1 Timothy 4:10).

“In the days of his flesh, Jesus offered up prayers and supplications, with loud cries and tears, to him who was able to save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverence.” Hebrews 5:7

“God raised Jesus from the dead…” Romans 8:11

Jesus needed God to save him, just like all people.

B.    Did Jesus pay for his own sin on the cross?

1.     Per reincarnation, Jesus was a sinner. He sinned as Adam and David.

2.     God is just.

“He is the Rock, his words are perfect, and all his ways are just.” Deuteronomy 32:4

“Righteousness and justice are the foundation of your throne.” Psalm 89:14

3.     Salvation is only consistent with God’s justice if that sin is paid for. Christians are “justified freely by his grace” THROUGH faith in Jesus and his “sacrifice of atonement”. It is because of Jesus that God maintains His justice, “so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus” (Romans 3:26). See the entire passage below:

“But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness is given through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood – to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished – he did it to demonstrate his righteousness at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those have faith in Jesus.”  Romans 3:21-26

So, Jesus’ sin as Adam and David needs to be paid for, just like all sin because of God's justice.  Did Jesus pay for his own sin on the cross?

1 John 2:2 says, “He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.”

Would the sins of the whole world include his own sin from past lives?

“For you know that it was not with perishable things such as silver or gold that you were redeemed from the empty way of life handed down to you from your ancestors, but with the precious blood of Christ, a lamb without blemish or defect.” 

1 Peter 1:18-19

Jesus had no blemish or defect – no sin. Consistent with Old Testament sacrifice, it is only because he had no blemish or defect that he was able to pay for sin on the cross – he was the perfect sacrifice.

“He himself bore our sins in his body on the cross, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; “by his wounds you have been healed.”

1 Peter 2:24

If Christ had also been bearing his own past sins on the cross, how could he have been a lamb with no blemish or defect?

“And you know that he was manifested to take away our sins, and in him there is no sin.” 1 John 3:5

“He committed no sin, neither as deceit found in his mouth.”

1 Peter 2:22

“For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.”

Hebrews 4:15

“How much more will the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without blemish to God, purify our conscience from dead works to serve the living God.”

Hebrews 9:14

“For it was indeed fitting that we should have such a high priest, holy, innocent, unstained, separated from sinners, and exalted above the heavens.”

Hebrews 7:26

“God made him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.” 

2 Corinthians 5:21 

Jesus bore “our” sins on the cross and “became” sin – there is no mention of “his” (past) sins. He bore our sins “in” his body on the cross, and “in him” is no sin. How could Jesus still be a lamb without blemish or defect or sin if he was dying for his own in any way or his own past sin dwelt in him in any way “in” his body on the cross?  1 John 2:2 says, "He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world." Yes, he died for the sins of the “whole world” (1 John 2:2), but “world” given the sentence's context and structure refers to all the people outside of Jesus. No one would think in reading that sentence that Jesus was dying for his own sin as well.

Further, if he was made sin (2 Corinthians 5:21, God made him "to be sin") which included his own sin, having “his sin” in his body on the tree, he would have sin, which contradicts the above passages and would result in him not being able to die as a spotless and blameless lamb. In short, there would be no salvation. So, he couldn’t have died for his own sin. Finally, if Jesus did die for his own sin in any way – if he “had” to go the cross to pay for his sin too or in going to the cross he was also saving himself - the cross would not be grace. His sacrifice was all about dying for others, not himself. 

Multiple verses affirm this. Romans 4:25 says, “He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification” (Romans 4:25). Jesus was not delivered over for his sin or raised to life to justify himself, but for the sin of the world and to justify those who put their faith in him. Romans 5:8 says, “But God demonstrates his own love for us in this: while we were still sinners, Christ died for us.” Christ did not die for himself. Finally, 1 Corinthians 15:3 says, “Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures…” Jesus died for others. There is not a single verse in the Bible that points to Christ dying for himself, and that would not be consistent with God’s gospel of grace or, by extension, God’s character. 

The essence of the gospel is that salvation is a gift received by grace through faith, not by human effort or works. Romans 3:24 says, “[Christians] are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption in Christ Jesus.” Titus 3:7 says, “…so that, having been justified by his grace, we might become heirs according to the hope of eternal life.” Romans 6:14 says, “For sin shall not have dominion over you, since you are not under law but under grace.” God’s gospel is one of grace, and salvation is not earned. Therefore, of course Christ did not pay for his own sin on the cross to earn salvation. That is not God’s way. That is not the way of love or of grace. God had a different plan for Christ’s salvation. 

C.    How could Christ’s sin be paid for, if not on the cross? 

1 Timothy 2:13-15 reveals this, though how exactly this happens is not revealed in Scripture. Verse 15 is very mysterious and has understandably confused Christians for centuries.

“For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor. Yet he (Note: “he” is a legitimate translation in the Greek, but most translations have “she” or "women") will be saved through childbearing—if they continue in faith and love and holiness, with self-control.”

1. These verses are talking about what happened in the garden of Eden in 1 Timothy 2:13-14, and the future Adam and Eve (perhaps through reincarnation, as discussed in section 4 of this blog) in verse 15, given the future verb usage, “if they continue”.

2. Jesus was the reincarnation of Adam, so this is referring to Jesus, the last Adam.

3. Moreover, this is referring to Jesus, the last Adam, when he returns, as Paul wrote this after Jesus ascended and the verb is the future tense.

4. In verse 15, one of them is being saved through childbearing. All Bible translations that I could find either say “Yet women will be saved” or “she will be saved.”

5. “Yet women will be saved” is an incorrect translation of the Greek because the verb is 3rd person singular.

6. “She will be saved” cannot be correct either. The Greek word for saved is “sōthēsetai”. In the Bible, this word is used 13 times and is exclusively used to talk about saving from God’s wrath and judgment except in 2 instances – that of Jesus’ healing of Jarius’ dead daughter, who was raised from the dead by Jesus, and in Luke 11:12 referring to Lazarus being raised from the dead. In summary, the word refers to saving both spiritually and in two instances physically raising from the dead (Greek concordance: "sōthēsetai"). This verse cannot refer to Eve, because Jesus saved the whole world, and died for the sins of the whole world, including Eve, and she does not need to be saved from God’s wrath and judgment or saved in terms of being raised from the dead. Eve is saved from both God’s wrath and judgment and assured of a future resurrection because of Jesus’ death and sacrifice on the cross.

7. However, Adam does need to be saved, both from God’s wrath and judgment and from physical decay and finally death because Jesus did not pay for his own sins on the cross per point B.

8. Therefore, Adam will be "saved through childbearing" – if the future Adam and Eve continue in faith and love and holiness, with self-control (1 Timothy 2:13-15).

9. Adam (Jesus when he returns) is being "saved through childbearing". This saving is jointly dependent on him and the future Eve continuing in faith and love and holiness, with self-control.

10. In term of Adam’s role in being saved “by childbirth”, Scripture teaches us to “work out your own salvation with fear and trembling”, so our salvation is part of each Christian’s job “to work out” (Philippians 2:12). Perhaps Adam’s role is to work out his own salvation with fear and trembling, in faith and love and holiness, with self-control.

11.   In terms of Eve’s role, if Adam is saved by childbearing, of the two Eve would be the one, as the woman, who is doing the childbearing. No one is saved by literal childbirth, so this childbirth must be referring to a spiritual childbirth. Non-physical childbirth is referenced in the following places in Scripture:

a)         Isaiah 42:14 God describes himself as being a woman in labor referring to how He is about to act on the world such as leading the blind, guiding them, and turning the darkness into light. This usage would not apply to Eve’s childbirth as she is not God.

b)         Isaiah 66:8-9 God is talking about Him giving birth to a joyous Jerusalem. This also would not apply to Eve’s childbirth as she is not God.

c)         John 16:21-22 Jesus is referring to women who give birth and forget their sorrow because of the birth of a new life. He compares it to his death and resurrection. He will die, but the final result will be him raising from the dead, and no one will take joy from the disciples. Jesus is comparing the disciples’ sorrow over his death with childbirth. Eve’s childbirth is connected to a man’s salvation, so this does not relate.

d)    Romans 8:22 Creation is groaning as in childbirth for the final restoration of the world. As this is referring to creation this would not refer to the woman Eve’s childbirth; also this type of childbirth does not include relationships between people.

e)      Revelation 12: This is an end times prophecy in Revelation that describes a woman giving birth to Jesus and the struggle with Satan that ensues as a result. This cannot be referring to Jesus' initial birth in Bethlehem because the passage describes how immediately following Jesus' "birth" here, he is "snatched up to God and to his throne" (verse 5) while the mother flees to the wilderness to a place prepared for her by God (verse 6). It is clear the child is Jesus because in verse 5 it says the male child will rule all the nations with a rod of iron. Verse 10 refers to the kingdom of God and authority of Christ having come as the outcome of the battle with Satan described. Given the symbolism of this passage and Revelation in general, it seems the passage is referring to a symbolic, spiritual birthing, just as 1 Timothy 2:15 is. So, this passage relates to 1 Timothy 2:15. As Adam is Jesus, and 1 Timothy 2:15 refers to his return, Revelation 12 describes Jesus’ return using childbirth as well. God highlights in two places in His Word that Adam’s (Jesus’) return to earth is related to childbirth, so evidently the childbirth metaphor is a helpful way of understanding how Jesus coming back is going to take place.

 12. While the verse says he will be saved “if” this happens, perhaps showing Adam may not be saved, Revelation 20-22, which shows Jesus reigning with other believers forever with God as the “lamp”, absolutely shows that Jesus (Adam) will be saved. Based on these verses, he will be saved by some sort of childbirth. For anyone who thinks it very odd that Jesus would be saved by some sort of childbirth, consider: “For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God” (1 Corinthians 1:18). Is it not also odd to be saved because of a man 2000 years ago dying on a Roman cross? There are many things we may find odd in the Bible from our perspective, but that does not mean those things are not true.

13. Again, if Jesus died for his own sin on the cross, he would not experience saving grace because he would die for his own sin and “save himself” in a way. God clearly prioritizes grace so that no one may boast. As Ephesians 2:8-9 says, “For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith – and this is not from yourselves, it is a gift of God – not by works, so that no one can boast.”

14. This is mysterious. The Bible does not explain exactly what this means, God's Word simply says this is how Adam will be saved. Christians are saved by grace through faith; Adam (Jesus) is saved by grace through childbirth. One day we will understand what Paul was revealing here. As 1 Corinthians 13:12 says, "For now we see only a reflection as in a mirror, then we shall see face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I am fully known."

So, Jesus will need saving when he returns, by grace, through childbirth, whatever that may mean. 

D.    An End to Sacrifice and Offering?

“He will confirm a covenant with many for one ‘seven’. In the middle of the ‘seven’ he will put an end to sacrifice and offering. And at the temple he will set up an abomination that causes desolation, until the end that is decreed is poured out on him.”

Daniel 9:27

“So when you see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by the prophet Daniel, standing in the holy place (let the reader understand), then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains.”

Matthew 24:15-16

“And by that will, we have been made holy through the sacrifice of the body of Jesus once for all. Day after day every priest stands and performs his religious duties; again and again he offers the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. But when this priest had offered for all time one sacrifice for sins, he sat down at the right hand of God, and since that time he waits for his enemies to be made his footstool. For by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who are being made holy. The Holy Spirit also testifies to us about this. First he says: ‘This is the covenant I will make with them after that time says the Lord. I will put my laws in their hearts, and I will write them on their minds.’ Then he adds: ‘Their sins and lawless acts I will remember no more.’ And where these have been forgiven, sacrifice for sin is no longer necessary.”

Hebrews 10:10-18

Daniel 9:27 must take place after the time of Jesus because Jesus in Matthew 24 speaks of a future event. At this time, the person in Daniel 9 will “put an end to sacrifice and offering”. Yet in Hebrews 10:18, God’s Word states that “sacrifice for sin is no longer necessary.” Didn’t Jesus “put an end to sacrifice and offering”? Why will a future event “put an end to sacrifice and offering”? By “one sacrifice” he has made perfect forever all of his followers. How can Daniel 9:27 point to another, future end to sacrifice and offering?

God’s Word never lies, so all these verses must be true. How can that be?

1.     Jesus died for the sins of all the world. These sins are forgiven because of what he did, and sacrifice for sin is no longer needed for the world that Christ died for.

2.      However, per 1 Timothy 2:13-15 that the future Adam (Jesus when he returns) will be saved through childbirth and Daniel 9:27’s witness to a future end of sacrifice, there will be another sacrifice. The only person left who needs a sacrifice is Jesus himself, and this will happen through childbirth and will put an end to sacrifice and offering because at that point everyone’s sin will be paid for.

E. How can Jesus’ past sin be paid for without a sinless sacrifice?

According to the Bible, his sin can’t be paid for without a sinless sacrifice. Jesus was only able to pay for the sin of the world because he had no sin. That is the only type of sacrifice that is acceptable to God. The Old Testament and the New Testament, particularly the verses quoted in point B, witness to this. So, how can this be possible?

Christians are saved by grace through faith in Christ’s finished work on the cross as an atoning sacrifice for them. Jesus is saved by grace through childbirth (whatever that may mean)… but what about the atoning, sinless sacrifice for his sin? Does the Bible lend any insight into any sinless person sacrificing their life for Christ?

Yes. The answer lies in understanding what really happened in the garden of Eden. A close reading of Genesis 2-4 reveals that Eve was innocent and gave her life for Adam. She is also the one involved in the "childbearing" to save Adam in 1 Timothy 2:15.

Was Eve innocent?

Genesis 2:15-18, 22

“The LORD God took the man and put him in the Garden of Eden to work it and take care of it. 16 And the LORD God commanded the man, “You are free to eat from any tree in the garden; 17 but you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, for when you eat from it you will certainly die.” 18 The LORD God said, “It is not good for the man to be alone. I will make a helper suitable for him…22 Then the LORD God made a woman from the rib[a] he had taken out of the man, and he brought her to the man.”

God told Adam explicitly and directly to not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. God told him he would die if he ate it. Eve was not alive when God told this to Adam.

Genesis 3:1-6, 13

“Now the serpent was more crafty than any of the wild animals the LORD God had made. He said to the woman, “Did God really say, ‘You must not eat from any tree in the garden’?”

2 The woman said to the serpent, “We may eat fruit from the trees in the garden, 3 but God did say, ‘You must not eat fruit from the tree that is in the middle of the garden, and you must not touch it, or you will die.’”

4 “You will not certainly die,” the serpent said to the woman. 5 “For God knows that when you eat from it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil.”

When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also desirable for gaining wisdom, she took some and ate it. She also gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate it…

13 Then the LORD God said to the woman, “What is this you have done?”

The woman said, “The serpent deceived me, and I ate.”

Eve added to God’s commandment to not eat the fruit by telling the serpent that they were commanded not to “touch it” or eat it. This demonstrates Eve was already confused, having made this up or heard this from Adam. 

How did the serpent trap her? What was the bait? He told her if you eat it, you will be like God – so, she decided to eat it. Is that a bad desire? Being like God? If her desire was not bad, but the action was – an action she was deceived about – is she guilty or innocent?

Adam was with her during the entire encounter with the snake (Genesis 3:6), and he was not deceived. Adam knowingly, intentionally sinned – did Eve, if she was deceived?

Genesis 3:9-13

9 “But the LORD God called to the man, “Where are you?”

10 He answered, “I heard you in the garden, and I was afraid because I was naked; so I hid.”

11 And he said, “Who told you that you were naked? Have you eaten from the tree that I commanded you not to eat from?”

12 The man said, “The woman you put here with me—she gave me some fruit from the tree, and I ate it.”

13 Then the LORD God said to the woman, “What is this you have done?”

The woman said, “The serpent deceived me, and I ate.”

After their sin, why does God only call to Adam initially? God asks using the singular form of “you”, “Who told you that you were naked? Have you eaten from the tree of which I commanded you not to eat?”  Why doesn’t He address both of them?

Initially, God does not ask Eve if she had disobeyed.  God does not ask Adam if they had disobeyed. God asked only Adam if he had disobeyed.

God does not address Eve until Adam blames his sin on her, and even potentially on God, as he says to God, “The woman whom YOU gave to be with me, she gave me the fruit of the tree...”

Eve then says she was deceived, which God does not question or challenge, and is true, as is affirmed in other parts of Scripture (1 Timothy 2:14, 2 Corinthians 11:2).

Romans 5:12

12 “Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned—"

1 Corinthians 15:21-22

21 For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. 22 For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive.”

Why did sin and death only enter the world through Adam, even though both Adam and Eve ate the fruit? Why does God only hold Adam responsible for sin entering the world according to 1 Corinthians 15:21 and Romans 5:12? Why not both of them?

1 Timothy 2:13-14

“For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a transgressor.”

Adam intentionally sinned, as he was not deceived.

Given that Eve was deceived, did God view her becoming a transgressor differently?

1 Timothy 2:14 says literally in the Greek, “into transgression has come”. So, certainly Eve entered transgression. But why? Could she have been innocent? She was deceived by the serpent, and Adam was there the whole time and did nothing to intervene. Does God hold her guilty or innocent because of what happened?

Genesis 3:13-19

13 Then the LORD God said to the woman, “What is this you have done?”

The woman said, “The serpent deceived me, and I ate.”

14 So the LORD God said to the serpent, “Because you have done this,

“Cursed are you above all livestock

  and all wild animals!

You will crawl on your belly

and you will eat dust

all the days of your life.

 15 And I will put enmity

     between you and the woman,

     and between your offspring[a] and hers;

 he will crush[b] your head,

     and you will strike his heel.”

16 To the woman he said,

“I will make your pains in childbearing very severe;

     with painful labor you will give birth to children.

 Your desire will be for your husband,

     and he will rule over you.”

17 To Adam he said, “Because you listened to your wife and ate fruit from the tree about which I commanded you, ‘You must not eat from it,’

“Cursed is the ground because of you;

     through painful toil you will eat food from it

     all the days of your life.

 18 It will produce thorns and thistles for you,

     and you will eat the plants of the field.

 19 By the sweat of your brow

     you will eat your food

 until you return to the ground,

     since from it you were taken;

 for dust you are

     and to dust you will return.”

God says to the serpent, “Because you have done this, cursed are you…”

God says to Adam, “Because you have listened to the voice of your wife and have eaten of the tree of which I commanded you…cursed is the ground…”

Why does God only tell Adam he will die but not Eve? Why doesn’t God use the same language when He speaks to Eve, “Because you have done this…?” Are God’s Words to her not “because” she ate the fruit? Why would God give her pain if she was “innocent” in eating the fruit? Is it possible He is responding to her good desire behind eating the fruit – to be like God? How can that happen apart from suffering? Were God’s Words to Eve a punishment or a response to her wanting to be like God, which can only happen through discipline and suffering?

Hebrews 12:4-13 says,

4 "In your struggle against sin, you have not yet resisted to the point of shedding your blood. 5 And have you completely forgotten this word of encouragement that addresses you as a father addresses his son? It says,

“My son, do not make light of the Lord’s discipline,

     and do not lose heart when he rebukes you,

 6 because the Lord disciplines the one he loves,

     and he chastens everyone he accepts as his son.”

7 Endure hardship as discipline; God is treating you as his children. For what children are not disciplined by their father? 8 If you are not disciplined—and everyone undergoes discipline—then you are not legitimate, not true sons and daughters at all. 9 Moreover, we have all had human fathers who disciplined us and we respected them for it. How much more should we submit to the Father of spirits and live! 10 They disciplined us for a little while as they thought best; but God disciplines us for our good, in order that we may share in his holiness. 11 No discipline seems pleasant at the time, but painful. Later on, however, it produces a harvest of righteousness and peace for those who have been trained by it.

12 Therefore, strengthen your feeble arms and weak knees. 13 “Make level paths for your feet,” so that the lame may not be disabled, but rather healed."

The reason for God’s discipline is so that we can be perfect – so we can be like Him. Could that be the purpose in God’s discipline for Eve? If His response to her was not “because you have done this”, could it be, “because you desired this [being like Me]”? Discipline from God on his child does not mean the child has done something wrong. For example, in the case of Jesus, Jesus learned obedience by what he suffered though he was sinless (Hebrews 5:8). If Eve was innocent in eating the fruit due to deception, perhaps God's consequences to her are so she will learn obedience through suffering like Jesus did.

Also, it is notable that God never cursed Adam and Eve. He only cursed the serpent.

Genesis 3:22-24

“And the LORD God said, “The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil. He must not be allowed to reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life and eat and live forever.” 23 So the LORD God banished him from the Garden of Eden to work the ground from which he had been taken. 24 After he drove the man out, he placed on the east side[a] of the Garden of Eden cherubim and a flaming sword flashing back and forth to guard the way to the tree of life.”

Why does God only say that the man, singular, has become like “one of us” knowing good and evil? Why isn’t Eve mentioned?

Why did God drive Adam out from the garden of Eden to work the ground because he did not want him to reach out and take from the tree of life without mentioning Eve?  If God drove Eve out of the garden of Eden and barred her from the tree of life, why doesn’t this passage say so?

Why didn’t God send Eve from His presence? If in His eyes she was guilty, why did He not bar her both from His presence and the tree of life? Is there any option than before God she was innocent? How did He allow her access to the tree of life if she was not?

Genesis 4:1

Adam made love to his wife Eve, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Cain. She said, “With the help of the LORD I have brought forth a man.”

Genesis 4:25

25 Adam made love to his wife again, and she gave birth to a son and named him Seth, saying, “God has granted me another child in place of Abel, since Cain killed him.”

Eve gave God the credit for giving birth to a man (Cain). Eve said Seth was a child from God as a gift because Abel was killed by Cain. Doesn’t this show that Eve had a relationship with God marked by gratitude and worship, as she sees good things coming from the Lord? While she “fell into transgression” (1 Timothy 2:14), what do her words say about her heart posture towards God?

Leviticus 4:13-35

13 “‘If the whole Israelite community sins unintentionally and does what is forbidden in any of the LORD’s commands, even though the community is unaware of the matter, when they realize their guilt 14 and the sin they committed becomes known, the assembly must bring a young bull as a sin offering and present it before the tent of meeting. 

22 “‘When a leader sins unintentionally and does what is forbidden in any of the commands of the LORD his God, when he realizes his guilt 23 and the sin he has committed becomes known, he must bring as his offering a male goat without defect.

27 “‘If any member of the community sins unintentionally and does what is forbidden in any of the LORD’s commands, when they realize their guilt 28 and the sin they have committed becomes known, they must bring as their offering for the sin they committed a female goat without defect.” 

Leviticus 5:17

17 “If anyone sins and does what is forbidden in any of the LORD’s commands, even though they do not know it, they are guilty and will be held responsible.”

Was Eve eating of the fruit unintentional sin? The Bible is clear, at least, that Eve did not sin intentionally. The Bible makes clear than unintentional sin still requires atonement and offering for forgiveness, and the person who committed the unintentional sin is guilty.

Unintentional means not done on purpose, while deceived means causing someone to believe something that is not true, typically in order to gain some personal advantage. Isn’t Satan attacking and deceiving Eve such that she eats the fruit different than someone sinning without realizing it? In Eve’s case, she was targeted and attacked by the evilest being in the universe. Was her response unintentional sin or manipulation? In God’s eyes, did He see Eve manipulated by the serpent or her making a mistake that needed atonement?

If her motivation was to be like God, wasn’t her motive pure and her action wrong? If 1) manipulation by the devil is involved, and 2) a pure heart on the part of the person is involved, isn’t this situation different than one of unintentional sin?

Finally, if it was a case of unintentional sin, again, why didn’t God drive her out of the garden? Isn’t atonement needed, like in all the cases of unintentional sin, for the individual or community to be made right with God again?

And yet God does nothing to drive Eve out of His presence. Again, why did God only tell Adam he would die, and not mention that in His words to Eve? Maybe she had done nothing deserving of death? The Bible is clear that sin leads to death in every case (Genesis 2:17, Romans 5:12, Romans 6:23). Could this be evidence that Eve did not sin?

Luke 12:47-48

47 “The servant who knows the master’s will and does not get ready or does not do what the master wants will be beaten with many blows. 48 But the one who does not know and does things deserving punishment will be beaten with few blows. From everyone who has been given much, much will be demanded; and from the one who has been entrusted with much, much more will be asked.”

In Eve’s situation, was God’s response to her eating the fruit beating her “with few blows”? Or a life of suffering that is for God’s glory, to be more like Him, which can only happen through suffering? Perhaps God’s response to Eve was the loving discipline of a Father who wants her to be like Him, not a consequence for sin.

Conclusion: Was Eve innocent?

God only accused the serpent and Adam in His words of, “Because you have done this…” But again, He did not use those words for Eve.  That is not a coincidence. Eve must have been innocent.  No guilty person can stay in the presence of God and eat of the tree of life, and God never drove Eve from His presence or barred her from eating the tree of life. He only did that for Adam, who twice in the New Testament is charged with bringing sin into the world – never Eve.

So, Eve sinlessly died for Adam. She did not have to follow him out of the garden, but she did because she loved him and chose to spend a mortal life with him instead of an immortal life with God apart from him. Before Jesus (Adam) died without sin for the world, a woman without sin gave up her life for him. 

Just as God required one single sinless atoning sacrifice from Jesus for the world, God required one single sinless atoning sacrifice for Jesus’ sin. Christians are saved by grace through faith in Jesus’ atoning work on the cross. 1 Timothy 2:15 provides a parallel: Jesus is saved by grace through childbirth by Eve, who gave up eternal life for Adam in the beginning.

“Helper” is a fitting name for Eve. “Helper” in the Hebrew means “ezer kenegdo”, literally, “a saving strength corresponding to him” (Payne, 2023).  The word means that the woman is able to do something for Adam that he is not capable of doing. All 19 other occurrences of “ezer” in the Bible refer to savior or deliver (Payne, 2023). Eve is, quite literally, Adam’s savior and deliver. Notably, Eve was called Adam's helper, or savior, in Genesis 2:18 right before Adam fell.

Like all Christians, Jesus also sinned and could not save himself. He needs saving just as each person does. While a lot of mystery remains regarding what "saved by childbearing" could mean, the Greek and the Biblical context reveals that this "saving" is salvific. Jesus is saved by grace, through childbearing, with a sinless sacrifice already having been made for him by Eve in the beginning.

F. Objections

1. Adam was the “head” as the man in Adam’s and Eve’s relationship. God places full authority on the man. So, Genesis not mentioning Eve being sent from the garden is because God held Adam to be ultimately responsible, not because Eve had not sinned. It is implied that Eve and Adam would leave the garden together. Eve made no “choice” to leave.  

God is clear in the Bible that each person dies for their own sin, regardless of gender. Deuteronomy 24:16 says, “Fathers shall not be put to death because of their children, nor shall children be put to death because of their fathers. Each one shall be put to death for his own sin.” God never told Eve she would die because of what happened in the garden. He only said that to Adam, and He only sent Adam out of the garden. Further, Jeremiah 31:30 says, “But everyone shall die for his own iniquity. Each man who eats sour grapes, his teeth shall be set on edge.” This verse is especially applicable as it actually gives an example of a man who eats fruit getting the penalty for his own actions. Everyone dies for his own iniquity. Finally, Ezekiel 18:20 says, “The soul who sins shall die. The son shall not suffer for the iniquity of the father, nor the father suffer for the iniquity of the son. The righteousness of the righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.” It could be added: the wife shall not suffer for the iniquity of her husband.

The Bible never says that God placed full authority on Adam. Genesis 1:28 says of Adam and Eve that “God blessed them and said to them, ‘Be fruitful and increase in number; fill the earth and subdue it. Rule over the fish in the sea and the birds in the sky and over every living creature that moves on the ground.” God created them to rule together in partnership. It was only after the fall that God said to Eve, “Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you” (Genesis 3:16). This was not God’s initial intention. God held Adam and Eve individually responsible for their own actions. Otherwise, He would not have responded to each of them separately and differently in Genesis 3 as a result of what happened. Again, it is not a coincidence that God only told Adam he would die for what happened, not Eve.

Given the biblical context of Genesis 1-3, at the end of Genesis when the text reads that God specifically sent the man, Adam, out of the garden, there is no reason to add to and read into the text that in God saying that He was also banning Eve from the garden and eternal life. God told Adam he would die if he ate from the tree, and God repeated at the end of Genesis 3 that that was his consequence. The text neglects to mention Eve not because Adam is the head of the relationship and represents them, as previously in Genesis 1-3 they are described as unique individuals with a unique response from God for their actions, but because Adam is the only one who sinned. God has no problem throughout the Bible in stating sins both men and women commit, and when the fall in the garden is described in the Bible, only Adam is held responsible in Romans 5:12 and 1 Corinthians 15:2-22. Sin and death came through one man; not one man and one woman, according to the Bible. This is notable, as Eve ate the fruit first. When Eve ate the fruit, then, before Adam followed, sin had not yet entered the world. And why is that? The most logical and biblically coherent answer is, I think, that Eve did not sin.

2. Even if Eve did make the choice to leave the garden for Adam’s sake, isn’t this very different than Jesus dying on a cross for the world’s sins? How could this really “pay” for Adam’s sin? Eve didn’t “shed blood” – isn’t blood necessary for atonement?

   
   

What is necessary for an atonement sacrifice according to the Bible?

While the Old Testament witnesses to answering that question, I will highlight passages regarding Jesus being the perfect sacrifice as I am comparing Eve’s sacrifice not to an animal’s, which can never take away sin (Hebrews 10:4), but to Jesus’. Jesus was a “lamb without blemish or defect” (1 Peter 1:18-19), he bore the world’s sin “in his body” on the cross (1 Peter 2:24), he had “no sin” (1 John 3:5, 1 Peter 2:22), “no blemish” (Hebrews 9:14), he was “holy, innocent, unstained, separated from sinners” (Hebrews 7:26), and he was made sin for the world though he knew no sin (2 Corinthians 5:21). Additionally, the atonement sacrifice has to die as a sacrifice, as the entire New Testament witnesses to as well as the passages regarding atonement in the Old Testament. In summary, what is necessary is a person who is 1) sinless, 2) bears another’s (or multiple others’) sin, and 3) sacrificially dies.

Does Eve meet those requirements?

1)    Sinlessness: yes, as proven above. Eve was innocent.

2)    Bears Adam’s sin: how did Jesus bear the world’s sin? By taking the penalty of the world’s sin on the cross. By leaving the garden of Eden, giving up eternal life and living in the presence of God, Eve bore Adam’s consequences for his sin in addition to the discipline God gave her in increasing her pain in childbirth. Specifically, Eve in following Adam out of the garden will bear his sin penalty in Genesis 3:19 of physical death. But also, through painful toil she will also eat food. Presumably Eve worked with Adam as any wife would to provide for their family. Eve bore the penalty of Adam’s sin though she did not deserve it. Notably, Adam did not share the discipline God gave Eve: pain in childbirth, desiring her spouse, and her spouse ruling over her. Eve suffered doubly for the fall: first, God’s discipline so she would mature and be like God, and second, bearing Adam’s sin and penalty with him.

3)    Sacrificially dies: While Eve did not die a painful death on the cross, she still sacrificially died. God told Adam in Genesis 2:16-17, “And the Lord God commanded the man, saying, “You may surely eat of every tree of the garden, ¹⁷ but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die.” Why does God say Adam would die on the day he ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil? Genesis is clear Adam died when he was 930 years old (Genesis 5:5). The same Hebrew word for die, “muth”, is used in both instances (Strong's Hebrew: 4191). He physically died after living 930 years.  Perhaps God is referring to a spiritual death taking place when he ate the fruit which would lead to a final physical death as a result of that spiritual death. He began to die the day he ate the fruit.

Eve had an option. She did not have to leave the garden because God only sent Adam out of the garden, and she had not sinned. She did not have to die, both spiritually and physically, with Adam and bear the penalty for his sin. It was a sacrifice for her to leave the garden and live a mortal life with Adam instead of an immortal life with God: a sacrifice that, quite literally, involved her giving up her life for Adam – both eternal life with God and consequently, physically dying with Adam.  Like Christ, she willingly gave up her life for, in her case one, sinner.

In summary, according to the Bible, Eve meets all the requirements of an atonement sacrifice for sin: 1) she was sinless, 2) she bore Adam’s sin, and 3) she sacrificially died.

3. What about Hebrews 9:22? Hebrews 9:22 says, “In fact, the law requires that nearly everything be cleansed with blood, and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness."

As with many passages in the Bible, I do not think this should be taken completely literally. Leviticus 17:11 provides helpful insight, “For the life of a creature is in the blood, and I have given it to you to make atonement for yourselves on the altar; it is the blood that make atonement for one’s life.” Hebrews 9:22 is saying that without someone dying for another, giving their life, there is no forgiveness. Nothing in Genesis indicates that Eve “shed blood”, though she did sacrificially give her life for Adam. By doing this, she “shed blood”.

Further, 1 Timothy 2:15 indicates that Adam will ultimately be saved through some sort of “childbirth”, and women bleed, shedding blood, when they give birth. 1 Timothy 2:15 also reveals that Adam is not saved “yet”. He WILL be saved through childbearing. What Eve started in the garden with her sinless sacrifice, bearing Adam’s penalty, will be finished with the future Eve and future Adam (Christ when he returns). Given the metaphor of childbirth that always involves blood being shed, and the law requirement for blood being shed in essence meaning someone giving their life, this requirement will be met for Eve to atone for Adam’s sin.

Yet given that this childbirth by the future Eve is spiritual, the “shedding of blood” will probably be metaphorical. At the very least, this means that this future childbearing by Eve for Adam’s sake will be very painful.  

3.     What about resurrection? Aren’t Christians saved by Christ’s resurrection too? Eve did not resurrect, or at least there is no indication in the Bible that she did?

Again, Eve’s sacrifice began her atonement of Adam, but it only ends when the future Adam (Christ) returns, as set forth in 1 Timothy 2:15. Paul is clear that Christ’s resurrection was absolutely essential for Christians’ sins being paid for. 1 Corinthians 15:17 says, “If Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile and you are still in your sins.” Why is that? Romans 5:9 says, “We have been justified by his blood.” So, not by his resurrection. Yet Romans 4:25 says Jesus was “delivered up [crucified] for our trespasses and raised for our justification.” So, Jesus’ blood and him raising was necessary for all Christian’s justification. Perhaps Paul is stating that Jesus’ resurrection was proof that Christ’s sacrifice was sufficient to pay for sin. Moreover, Jesus was sinless – a requirement for his sacrifice atoning for sin – and sinless people do not stay in the grave. In 1 Corinthians 15:20 Paul affirms, “But in fact Christ has been raised from the dead.” Jesus’ sinless payment for the world’s sin was completely satisfactory given Christ’s righteousness, and this was fully affirmed by God raising him from the dead.

Perhaps 1 Timothy 2:15 refers not only to Eve “shedding her blood” to atone for Adam in some way, as that is a requirement for atonement, but also Eve resurrecting in some way as proof of her character in the garden – as proof of her pure love for God and Adam.

While the Bible is silent on exactly what Adam being saved through childbirth will look like in the future, the Bible is not silent on this childbearing being salvific for Adam. That much is clear. Again, we see now in part: someday face to face, “For now we see only a reflection as in a mirror; then we shall see face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I am fully known.” (1 Corinthians 13:12)

4.     What about when God made Adam and Eve clothes out of animal skins (Genesis 3:21)? Was God making a sacrifice for both of their sins? Doesn’t that prove that Eve is not innocent?

The Bible never says that God killing an animal to give Adam and Eve clothes to wear in any way atones for their sin. In fact, the Bible says the opposite. Hebrews 10:4 says, “For it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.” So, God killing an animal to make skin clothes for Adam and Eve would not impact their standing before Him. If Eve had sinned, she would have had to leave the garden with Adam. If Eve had sinned, her consequence would have been death, as the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23). Eve was innocent. This does not show atonement of sin, rather, this shows God’s care and love for Adam and Eve in clothing them. This could also symbolically point to how God would make a sacrifice of each of them to atone for each other.

5.     How can Eve be a sacrifice for Adam if she sins after leaving the garden? The Bible says “all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God” (Romans 3:23). This shows Eve sins at some point, as all humans have sinned.

So, the Bible is clear that at some point, Eve did sin after the garden and her sacrifice for Adam, otherwise, Romans 3:23 would be false. She did sin at some point and fall short of the glory of God. The Bible hardly says anything about Eve, so it is unclear when or how that occurs, it is just evident that she will sin at some point.

Second, how can Jesus be a sacrifice for the world if he sinned as Adam and David? Sin at some point does not nullify in God’s eyes, apparently, a sinless sacrifice at some point, provided the sacrifice itself was pure and unblemished. Section 4 of my blog proves this biblically, as the Bible shows that Jesus seriously sinned in past lives yet overcame as Jesus and atoned for the world’s sin given his pure life.

Third, while the Bible is largely silent about Eve and her life, the Bible is clear that she gave her life for Adam while she was still pure and blameless. In God’s eyes, Adam died the day he sinned and was sent from the garden, not that he died when he was 930. So, similarly, in God’s eyes, Eve died the day she chose to bear Adam’s sin and follow him after the garden. At the time of her death, then, Eve was pure and blameless, regardless of what happened in the future – and we know from Romans 3:23 that at some point she did sin after this.

Fourth, in God’s eyes, Eve’s sacrifice was sufficient. 1 Timothy 2:15 proves this. Paul prophesies that Adam will be saved “through childbearing”. Through the childbearing of who? Of the future Eve. God counts her worthy to save Adam. This can only be true if He counted her initial sacrifice in the garden as worthy: as pure and sinless. Only human sacrifices for other people that are pure and sinless can save. Further, this can only be true if, as 1 Timothy 2:15, the future Eve continues in faith, love, holiness, and self-control. God’s standard is high for a sacrifice to be worthy enough to save another person.

Finally, again, while Paul uses the word “if” Eve (and the future Adam) continues in faith, love, holiness, and self-control, Adam will be saved; the end of the Bible provides complete assurance that he will be. In Revelation 20-22 Christ, the Lamb of God, is shown to be reigning with the saints forever and ever (Revelation 22:1-5).

G. Conclusion

The Church is saved by grace, through faith, because of Christ and his sacrifice.

Adam (the future Christ) will be saved by grace, through childbearing, because of Eve and her sacrifice.

H. Implications

1. Jesus is way more like Christians than Christians think, as he also needs grace and saving from his sin.

2. Eve is Jesus’ savior given she 1) gave her life sinlessly for him in the beginning and 2) will play a key role in him being “saved through childbirth” when Adam (Christ) returns.

3. God's way of salvation is always grace, not works. No one can earn their salvation.