6: Adam and Jesus- Biblical Reincarnation?

A.        Micah 5:2

“But you, O Bethlehem Ephrathah, who are too little to be among the clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me one who is to be ruler in Israel, whose coming forth is from of old, from ancient days.”

Jesus is “from of old, from ancient days." He clearly existed before his birth in Bethlehem.

John 1:29-30

“The next day he [John the Baptist] saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, ‘Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world! This is he of whom I said, ‘After me comes a man who ranks before me, because he was before me.’”

Jesus was "before" John the Baptist, but John the Baptist was born before Jesus. How can this be? Jesus must have existed before his birth in Bethlehem.

John 8:58

“Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.’ So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple.”

Jesus existed before Abraham, so he clearly existed before his birth in Bethlehem.

B.        John 17:5

“And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed.”

If Jesus isn’t God, how could he preexist before the world?

He may have had at least one past life. If so, what other man had glory with the Father before the world existed? Jesus had glory with the Father before the world began. How could Jesus have glory with the Father before the world began? Some argue – biblical unitarians – that Jesus existed as a thought in God’s head before the world began. Yet, if Jesus “had glory” with God, he must have been more than a thought.  Trinitarians use this passage as evidence that Jesus existed eternally with the Father. Yet if that is true, how do other passages like Colossians 1:15 and Revelation 3:14 make sense about Jesus having a beginning?  Also, this passage is not proof that Jesus always existed eternally, it just states that he existed before the world began. The “world” here in Greek means civilization, not “world” in terms of Jesus existing before anything else at all was created. Consider John 3:16, where the same word is used: “For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son.” “World” refers to the inhabitants of the world: civilization. “World” is used in the same way in John 16:11, talking about Satan being the ruler of the world. John 16:20 talks about the world rejoicing when Jesus died though the disciples will be sorrowful. John 17:9 says Jesus says he is not praying for the world (all people) but specifically his disciples. In the context of John's gospel, therefore, Jesus in John 17:5 is referring to "the world" as general human civilization.

Adam certainly had glory with the Father before the world (civilization) existed as man in relationship with God, made in His image, before the fall. Could Jesus have had a past life as Adam?

(Williams, 2019a)

C.        “…the son of Enos, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God.”

Luke 3:38

“She said to him, ‘Yes, Lord; I believe that you are the Christ, the Son of God, who is coming into the world.”

John 11:27

“For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life."

John 3:16

Did Jesus have a past life as Adam?

Adam and Jesus are both the son of God. However, there are others pre-Jesus called the son of God in the Bible: angels, King David, King Solomon, and Israel collectively as a nation. How can that alone be proof Jesus had a past life as Adam?

While these other individuals and groups of people are called the son of God, Adam is decidedly unique. No other human only had God as his Father besides Eve. David and King Solomon had other fathers. Adam is truly God's "only begotten son": his unique son.

D.        “Then God said, ‘Let us make man in our image, after our likeness. And let them have dominion over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the heavens and over the livestock and over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.’ So God created man in his own image, in the image of God he created him; male and female he created them. And God blessed them. And God said to them, ‘Be fruitful and multiply and fill the earth and subdue it, and have dominion over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the heavens and over every living thing that moves on the earth.”

Genesis 1:26-28

“When no bush of the field was yet in the land and no small plant of the field had yet sprung up—for the Lord God had not caused it to rain on the land, and there was no man to work the ground, and a mist was going up from the land and was watering the whole face of the ground –then the Lord God formed the man of dust from the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living creature.”

Genesis 2:5-7

“In their case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.”

2 Corinthians 4:4

“He [Jesus] is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities – all things were created through him and for him. And he is before (all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent. For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell, and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross.”

Colossians 1:15-20

Could Jesus be the reincarnation of Adam?

Adam and Jesus are both the image of God and the firstborn of all creation.

If Jesus was “created”, as biblical unitarians maintain, at his conception in Mary’s womb, how can these verses be understood? Some argue that Jesus is the firstborn of the new creation. But does that make sense in the context? If all things were created in him (at the beginning), Jesus must have existed at the beginning. The word “were” is also used, which is past tense. It seems this passage must be talking about the old creation. How could Jesus have been alive then?

Trinitarians look at this passage to claim that Jesus existed eternally with the Father. But, how does that make sense? Verse 15 states that Jesus was “firstborn”. Something that is born has a beginning. It seems Jesus had a beginning, as God’s Son. He didn’t always exist. If the Trinitarian understanding of “firstborn” simply meaning “preeminent” is accepted, “firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent” would be Paul being repetitive. “Firstborn” is repeated here and Paul calls out Jesus’ preeminence after saying he is firstborn. In context, Paul clearly does not consider “firstborn” to mean “preeminent” or he would not have clarified and repeated that in writing Jesus “the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent.” “Firstborn”, for Paul, maintains its most basic meaning: the one who is born first. Not only was Jesus born first in terms of creation order as the first man, but he also was born first from the dead as the last Adam, Jesus.

Does God have more than one firstborn? Were Adam and Jesus both God’s firstborn? Did not Adam share glory with God before the creation of the world? Was Jesus somehow there too? Is there another son of God besides Adam that the gospels could be referring to? Were there 2 men, 2 “firstborns” at the beginning of creation?  Or did Jesus have a past life as Adam? Logically, a father only has one firstborn child. So, the most straightforward answer is that Jesus and Adam are the same soul – Jesus is the reincarnation of Adam. Adam was firstborn of God as Genesis and Luke 3:38 clearly show. Paul reveals Jesus to be the firstborn of all creation in Colossians 1. “Firstborn of all creation” also implies that Jesus, the firstborn, is part of creation, not separate from it. To put the verse in other words: he is, of all creation, the firstborn.

Israel as a nation is also called God’s firstborn (Exodus 4:22), as well as King David (Psalm 89:27) and Solomon (1 Chronicles 22:9). But neither were called “firstborn of all creation”, it was more of a title that described their relationship with God. David was not inherently the firstborn according to the verse – God made him His firstborn. David was actually youngest of his brothers (1 Samuel 17:12-14).

Only Adam was truly firstborn of all creation – literally as the first living creature born (Genesis 2:5-7), even before any plants or animals. If Jesus is also proclaimed to be as such, the most logical conclusion, particularly given that reincarnation is real as shown in other Scriptures, is that Adam and Jesus are the same soul.

(Williams, 2019a)

E.         Colossians 1:15-20 seems to indicate that Jesus had a significant role in creation. How can that be possible if he is only a man? Translating the Greek pronouns in the passage differently yet staying true to the Greek meaning of the word, offers a possible solution.

Alternate translation of Colossians 1:15-20, changes italicized:

“He [Jesus] is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. For because of [previous: by] him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities – all things were created through him and for him. And he is before all things, and with [previous: in] him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent. For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell, and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross.”

What if Jesus was Adam? What if God created the world because of, or “by”, Jesus, because he loved him so much, just as any Father wants to give all he can to his child and bless them? What if because of Adam (and Eve), the pinnacle of God’s creation, God created the world – “through” them in a way? Certainly Adam was ruler of “before” creation in the beginning, as God gave Adam and Eve dominion (Genesis 1:28). If Jesus is not God, he is not the one who is holding all things together – that is God. Another legitimate translation of the preposition in the Greek is “with”, which fits well with Adam and Jesus being the same soul, or person. God is holding all things together, which includes him. God is holding Jesus and loves him dearly as His Son. These verses point to God’s amazing love and goodness in blessing humans with creation. God created creation for His children – for His Son.

Possible parallel: I lived in an inner city until I was 6 years old. My parents were involved in nonprofit work in the neighborhood there. When it was time for me to go to kindergarten, they did not want me to be put in public school because the public schools were not good. So, they decided to start a Christian school for me and for other neighborhood kids to go to as a better option. The school is now known as one of the best schools in the state and serves both high and low income students. My parents and others they knew worked together to make the best school they could.

This is a very imperfect parallel, but just as my parents loved me and wanted the best for me, and as a result decided to start a school – something they would not have done otherwise – in maybe the same way, God decided to create the world for His son (and for the children that followed). Maybe God would not have gone to all the trouble to create the world if it was not for His son. Perhaps, going back to the prepositions, He created the world and everything in it along “with” His son, “because of” His son, and “for” His son. Maybe this passage points less to Jesus being Creator and more to God the Father’s amazing love and care for His son.

“Reconcile” in English means “to make amends, to settle a dispute, or in terms of money ‘reconciliation’ is an accounting process that ensures that the actual amount of money spent matches the amount shown leaving shown leaving an account at the end of a fiscal period.” If Jesus is not God, what man could better reconcile humanity’s debt but Adam, who brought sin into the world (Romans 5:12, 1 Corinthians 15:22)? What if Jesus was literally making amends for what he did as Adam in the beginning?

The Bible seems to point, though it may be difficult to accept, to Jesus having a past life as Adam.

Note: I do not mean to imply in any way that Jesus deserved the cross because of the Fall. The cross was not God's judgment on Adam. The cross was God's judgment on the entire world. Jesus graciously and courageously gave his life for the world's sin, which included his own if this is true. I address the atonement in another post that explains this.

F.         “And to the angel of the church in Laodicea write: ‘The words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of God’s creation.”

Revelation 3:14

“[Jesus said] But from the beginning of creation, ‘God made them male and female.’”

Mark 10:6

Was Jesus Adam in a past life?

Jesus is speaking. Jesus is speaking of himself as distinct from God. If he calls himself the beginning of God’s creation, he is not the Creator God.  Jesus affirms in this verse that he is part of God’s creation. If he is the beginning of God’s creation, he is part of it. Jesus is the beginning of creation. What other man was the beginning of God’s creation besides the man Adam? Jesus was Adam.

G.        “When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. But he laid his right hand on me, saying, ‘Fear not, I am the first and the last, and the living one. I died, and behold I am alive forevermore, and I have the keys of Death and Hades.”

Revelation 1:17-18

“So it is written, ‘The first man Adam became a living being’, the last Adam, a life-giving spirit.”

1 Corinthians 15:45

What does Jesus mean when he says he is the first and the last? Does this mean he is God, or could this have another legitimate interpretation? Could he be the first and the last Adam, ushering in a new creation of people in Christ, no longer in Adam? Why is Jesus given the name “Adam”, the same name as the first man?

Maybe Jesus could have been Adam.

H.   “Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned – for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law. Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam, who was a type of the one who was to come.

But the free gift is not like the trespass. For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many. And the free gift is not like the result of that one man’s sin. For the judgment following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift following many trespasses brought justification. For if, because of one man’s trespass, death reigned through that one man, much more will those who received the abundance of grace and the free gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man Jesus Christ. Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men. For as by the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man’s obedience the many will be made righteous.”

Romans 5:12-19

“For as by a man came death, by a man has come also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive.”

1 Corinthians 15:21-22

Adam was a “pattern” or “figure” of the one to come – could this be referring to the fact that Jesus had a past life as Adam?

The literal Greek definition of “type” (“typos” in the Greek) is a stamp, or figure/impression made on a coin, or an image, figure, model, or original pattern. One Christian advocate of reincarnation stated that this word points clearly to reincarnation’s definition, stating that clearly Jesus is the reincarnation of Adam given this verse. If this commentator is incorrect, why is Jesus so closely identified with Adam throughout the Bible? Given that reincarnation does not contradict the Bible or who God is, Jesus may have been Adam in a past life.

(Williams, 2019a)

I.          “I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet. For Adam was formed first, then Eve; and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor. Yet (in the Greek, either “he” or “she”) will be saved through childbearing – if they continue in faith and love and holiness, with self-control.”

1 Timothy 2:13-15

Who does the “they” refer to if not Adam and Eve, given the verse before is discussing them? Some translations say “women” instead of “they” – which translation makes more sense here, “women”, or “Adam and Eve” given the preceding verse about Adam and Eve? The Greek does not say “women”.

If reincarnation is not real, particularly in the case of Adam, why are Adam and Eve here talked about, if “they” are the “they”, using the future tense? How can they “continue” if they are dead? If this is referring to Adam and Eve’s resurrection, why does the verse say, “if they continue in faith and love and holiness, with self-control”, indicating a process of sanctification and not the final perfection Christians will experience characteristic of the new heaven and new earth (Rev. 21-22)?

These verses show that Adam and Eve will exist on earth in the future, presumably through reincarnation, before the new heaven and the new earth, given that the context is them persevering in faith, love, holiness, and self-control with the possibility of not doing that (sinning). Given that the verses refer to the future, this “Adam” may refer to Jesus, who is also called “Adam.” – the “last Adam”.  Adam and Eve are described in this passage as continuing in faith, love, holiness, and self-control. This is something Jesus, the last Adam, could do, given that he already was exhibiting faith, love, holiness, and self-control. In contrast, the first Adam did none of those things.

This verse seems to be pointing to Jesus’ return, as he is the “last Adam”, and the only Adam who had faith, love, holiness, and self-control. Given this, Adam and Jesus must be the same soul. Paul is talking about the last Adam (Jesus) here by pointing to his future return as the only Adam who had faith, love, holiness, and self-control, and he is acknowledging that this Adam is the exact same one who fell in the garden. Jesus is called the “last Adam” for a reason: he lived a past life as Adam and overcame Adam’s sin as Jesus. In calling all to follow him, Jesus is more like us than we realize: like him, we must overcome our sin and be who God created us to be.

J.          Conclusion: Given the amount Adam and Jesus have in common, if Jesus is not God, could Jesus have been Adam in a past life?  Does reincarnation contradict the Bible or God’s character? If so, where or how?

If Jesus is not God, what sounds more like God? For God to start over with a new “son of God”, a new “firstborn”, a new “image of God”? Or give Adam a second chance? God knew Adam would fall as the father of the human race. Could He have prepared in advance a plan for him to overcome his sin and make amends for what he did by dying on the cross? If this is true, would not Jesus’ death make more sense from a justice point of view, as Adam was responsible for sin entering the world in the first place? God is a master storyteller and redeems His people’s stories. Why would He not do this for Adam, the man responsible for the Fall, who brought sin into the world? Surely, He loved Adam just as much as Jesus because God does not show favoritism. It seems more consistent with God’s character to give His firstborn son another chance than start over with a new son named Jesus.

Also, again, creation is logical and does not contradict itself – so, neither does God. Can God have 2 firstborn sons? If Adam and Jesus are both the firstborn, reincarnation is real, and many other verses connect both Adam and Jesus, Jesus was Adam in a past life.

This is difficult to accept as true given Christendom’s witness to the contrary and insistence that Jesus is God, but our source of truth is not the Church, made up of fallible people, but Scripture itself. What is the text plainly saying? What makes most sense given God’s character? What is most logical when all relevant passages are considered? We all have God-given reason to help us understand Him and His Word.

I did not want to accept this as true for a long time after it first occurred to me that this might be true. Jesus with a past life as Adam seemed completely off – this possibility was certainly very different than anything I had been taught about Jesus my entire life. But I had to concede that just because it felt off and unbiblical did not mean it was not true, and that God’s Word needed to shape my own thinking about what was true.

What is more, the implications of Jesus having a past life as Adam are only good, not bad. If this really is true, this revelation points me to a God who is more gracious and compassionate than I thought. This shows that not only did God have great grace for Adam, the author of our sin, He had a plan in place for Adam to be redeemed and restored even before his sin in the garden that would result in redemption and restoration for the entire world as well. This shows me that yes, God loves Jesus – which I already knew – and yes, God adores Adam, the one who brought sin into the world, and did not give up on him. God never intended to give up on Adam. He led Adam and sanctified Adam to be Jesus, our Savior and example. 

And if this is true, I think hope should be magnified in our hearts. Why? I think this revelation is further evidence for universal salvation. If God had such a redemptive and restorative plan to save Adam, through whom He would save the world, how could He not have the same plan for every person He created? Romans 2:11 is clear that God does not show favoritism. He has equal love and compassion for each person He created. If He had a plan for Adam, whose sin infected the human race so that every other person born is by nature “a child of wrath” (Ephesians 2:3), it is difficult for me to imagine that God would not make a way, somehow, for everyone to be saved.

In light of this revelation, 1 Corinthians 15:22 has new power: “For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive.” “All” means “all”. Sin’s corrupting influence impacted all people born after Adam such that all die – but the new life found in Christ will make “all” alive according to Paul. Not “some” – “all”. If we agree that Paul’s statement of “in Adam all die” means literally “all people” die in Adam, why do we not think “all people” will made alive in Christ? Shouldn’t we be consistent in our interpretation of that verse? If all people literally die in Adam, it follows Paul is saying all people will literally be made alive in Christ.

This, again, can only be possible if people make a conscious choice to choose God and repent. Without reincarnation, it seems impossible, though I believe God will make a way to save all even if I cannot comprehend how. But with reincarnation, universal salvation is certainly a logical possibility. So far, we have seen that the Bible gives 2 examples of reincarnation: Elijah reincarnating as John the Baptist and Adam reincarnating as Jesus. If we are honest the reality of reincarnation is not bad news – it is good news.

Consider: Christians (almost) universally believe that the gospel of Jesus Christ is the only way to be saved, which is affirmed in multiple places in Scripture such as Acts 4:12 and John 14:6. Accepting the gospel is a personal choice to repent – not something that can be forced on someone. Tragically, millions throughout history have died without accepting this gospel – most, even, without hearing the good news once. If reincarnation is real and something that God uses, at least in the lives of 2 of His children, perhaps these souls could be reborn on earth and have another chance to repent. Does such a supposition contradict God’s character or line up with it, given God is gracious and merciful?

Myself, among many other Christians and non-Christians I have talked to, have wondered at God’s justice – how is it fair for millions to die and face God's judgment without ever hearing the gospel, just because they were born in a different part of the world where Christianity is not prevalent or even nonexistent? It does not seem “fair” to many, though Christians trust God regardless.

God's great mercy, love, grace, justice, and lack of favoritism towards all His creatures points to a God who would give all equal opportunity and access to salvation. If reincarnation is real, even our human minds can fathom that, over the course of history, God has been and is giving equal opportunity and access to salvation for all His creatures through the means of reincarnation, though we may not understand the details and intricacies of God’s working in this way.

We do know, as explained in a previous post, that those who put their faith in Christ, upon death, go immediately to be with Christ in heaven until, potentially, the “rebirth” of Christians as referenced by Jesus in Matthew 19:28. We also know that there is a final judgment. These truths, as stated in the previous section, do not contradict reincarnation in the time before this final judgment. It does not contradict Scripture, and it certainly does not contradict a loving and merciful God’s character, for unbelievers to be reincarnated until they put their faith in Jesus and are saved. In contrast, it does seem to contradict God’s love, mercy, and justice, for the millions who have perished over history without even hearing the gospel to not have another chance to repent.

If God used reincarnation to redeem and restore the founder of our faith, Jesus, God may use it to redeem and restore others too, though again, the Bible is not explicit on this. Whether He uses reincarnation or not, universal salvation is His plan. Jesus says in John 12:32, “And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.” This verse certainly advocates for universal salvation. Jesus says he will draw “all people” to himself – not some: all. You may critique my interpretation and say I am taking this passage too literally – I hope we can be united in agreeing that we both hope I am right in my literal interpretation.

All things are possible with God, and reincarnation would provide the opportunity for unbelievers who have died to repent. Nothing in Scripture contradicts this possibility, and if this were true, universal salvation suddenly becomes a logical and even biblical possibility. Reincarnation is not bad news for the Church – it is very good news.

Two last notes:

1.     If you think that because reincarnation is a prevalent belief in Eastern religions, it should be rejected, reconsider your perspective. Satan throughout the Bible twists truth, but he is unable to create something entirely new as God is the Creator, not him. People are deceived usually by a distortion of truth, not a complete lie. Complete lies most people can see through as we are all made in the image of God. People who believe and created the Eastern religions are also made in the image of God and are well able to discover truths about God and His world. As previously stated, biblical reincarnation is different than the punitive reincarnation described in the Eastern religions, but that does not mean elements of truth do not exist in religions like Hinduism and Buddhism.

2.     While, as explained previously, faith in Jesus results in, upon death, a believer being with Christ in heaven with God, it is possible that upon Jesus’ return God will reincarnate not just unbelievers but also believers to inaugurate His new world. As explained previously, Jesus used the word “rebirth” in Matthew 19:28 to describe the time when the Son of Man sits on his glorious throne and judges the twelve tribes of Israel with the disciples. During this time, all Christians will “receive a hundred times as much and will inherit eternal life” (verse 29). This time described by Jesus cannot refer to something that happened in the disciples’ lives during the Roman empire as all of them were brutally murdered with the exception of John. This also cannot refer to the new heaven and the new earth, as judgment will cease in a world where sin does not exist (see Revelation 21 and 22). Therefore, Jesus must be referring to the millennial reign of Christ, which happens previous to the new heaven and new earth and is a time where Christ and his follower reign and judge the earth (see Revelation 20:1-6). The word “judge” is specifically used in Revelation 20:4 which adds credence to Jesus referring to the millennium specifically in Matthew 19. Again, no judgment is needed in the new heaven and new earth when sin has ceased to exist. Proof of this is evident in the fact that death will not exist, and sin always leads to death (James 1:15). Given the language of Jesus (“rebirth”) in Matthew 19:28, it is at least possible that Jesus and Christians will be reincarnated during the time of the millennium.

If this is true, this narrative would fit well with the idea of God using reincarnation as a means for unbelievers to have another chance to be saved. During the millennium, which is before the final judgment described in Revelation 20:7-15, unbelievers are present and Satan is bound and unable to deceive the nations anymore (Revelation 20:2). I explain about the millennium in section 6 of this blog. God’s Word shows, then, that this is an opportunity for the entire world to be saved that has never before been realized in history: not only are Christ and his Church reigning and judging, Satan is bound so he cannot deceive the nations. With Christ and his Church, including his Spirit-filled apostles, reigning and Satan out of the way, the fulfillment of Jesus’ Great Commission for the whole world is not only possible: it is an unstoppable reality.

Doesn’t this perfectly synch with who we know God to be? Infinite in goodness, mercy, and kindness? Yes, he is a God of justice – justice is the order that His love requires. If His justice alone reigned, none would be saved, as all have sinned. But God in His Word does not say that He is Justice. He says He is Love (1 John 4:16). He also says that mercy triumphs over judgment (James 2:13).

The millennium clearly shows, in Revelation 20:1-6, that there is a way for universal salvation to happen if reincarnation is true. Again, the last judgment in Revelation 20:11-15 does not mean everyone cannot be saved. The conclusion of this passage is that “Anyone whose name was not found written in the book of life was thrown into the lake of fire.” What if the name of every person who ever lived was written in the book of life? If yes, everyone is saved. Let’s continue to pray and work towards that end, which I hope you see is more than possible: I believe it is what God planned all along.

After all, God said that when Jesus returns, it will be “the time… for God to restore everything, as he promised long ago through his holy prophets” (Acts 3:21). Why don’t we take God at His Word? “Everything” means “everything”. God will restore all things, which of course includes His most precious creations: human beings. All humans will be restored, along with everything else. Rejoice!