Is Jesus God? Part 11: Scripture in Context- Remaining New Testament Books

Paul’s Epistles

1.     Romans 5:15-17

“But the free gift is not like the trespass. For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many. And the free gift is not like the result of that one man’s sin. For the judgment following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift following many trespasses brought justification. For if, because of one man’s trespass, death reigned through that one man, much more will those who receive the abundance of grace and the free gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man Jesus Christ. Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men. For as by the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man’s obedience the many were made righteous. Now the law came in to in increase the trespass, but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, so that as sin reigned in death, grace also might reign through righteousness leading to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.”

If only God could die for the sin of the world, why is Jesus’ humanity highlighted here in describing atonement, not his (perhaps) deity?

Jesus’ humanity seems to be of greater consequence concerning the atonement than his (potential) deity.

If Jesus is God, why in this passage is he compared specifically to the man Adam and not to God, who is spirit?

Jesus is a man. As stated multiple times, God is not a man (Hosea 11:9), so this suggests Jesus is not be God.

No verse in the Bible indicates that Jesus had to be God to pay for the sins of the world.

2.     Romans 8:9-11

^“You, however, are not in the realm of the flesh but are in the realm of the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God lives in you. And if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, they do not belong to Christ. ¹⁰ But if Christ is in you, then even though your body is subject to death because of sin, the Spirit gives life because of righteousness. ¹¹ And if the Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead is living in you, he who raised Christ from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies because of his Spirit who lives in you.”

This passage does not mean that the Spirit of God and the Spirit of Christ are the same and therefore Christ is divine. These are two different ways of referring to the Holy Spirit. The possessive used in terms of “Spirit OF God” and “Spirit OF Christ” refers to the close, intimate relationship between Christ and the Holy Spirit, which is the Spirit of God. The Holy Spirit was the One who enabled Christ to do all that he did. Trinitarian Christians would generally agree that the “Spirit of Christ” is referring to the Holy Spirit, not to Christ’s “spirit” which he gave up when he died on the cross (Matthew 27:50). Context is key to understand what Paul is saying here. The “Spirit of Christ”, or the “Spirit of God”, the Holy Spirit, filled Christ, and as such, will fill those who belong to Christ. Through the power of the Holy Spirit, moreover, Christ lives in us, though physically he is at the right hand of God the Father till his return.

3.     Romans 8:17

“…and if children then heirs – heirs of God and fellow heirs with Christ, provided we suffer with him in order that we may also be glorified with him.” 

If Jesus is God, how can he be an heir of God in Romans 8:17? Why is he a fellow heir with Christians of God, if he himself is God? How can God inherit God?

It is illogical for Jesus to inherit himself or something he already has. If he is an heir of God, he cannot be God himself. God is a gift that Jesus also inherits, just like every Christian.

4.     Romans 8:28-30

“And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose. For those he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. And those whom he predestined he also called, and those whom he called, he also justified, and those whom he justified he also glorified.”

Colossians 1:15 says that the Son is the “image of the invisible God”, and this passage says that believers will be conformed to the image of his Son. Some point to Colossians 1:15 as a proof that Jesus is God. If Jesus is God, and Christians will be conformed to the same image, will we also be God?

Of course, no one will be, so being the image of the invisible God does not mean that Jesus is God. It means quite the opposite: an image of something is by definition not the thing itself. If Jesus is made in the image of God, he cannot himself be God. A picture of me, for example, is decidedly not me, but it does not reveal something about me.

5.     Romans 9:5

“To them belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ, who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen.” 

If Jesus isn’t God, why does this verse say Christ is God over all?

The original text does not have punctuation, so there is more than one way to translate the verse. It could be translated to show Jesus is God, or not. For example, the RSV version is translated, “to them belong the patriarchs, and of their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ. God who is over all be blessed forever. Amen.” The KJV translates this as, “Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen.” In the KJV the last statement could be read as a type of eulogy or doxology referring to God. “God over all” and “God blessed forever” are both used of God the Father in other places in the New Testament (Rom. 1:25, 2 Cor. 11:31, Eph. 1:3, 4:6, and 1 Tim. 6:15). It seems odd to take eulogies referring exclusively to God the Father in other places in the Bible and apply them to Christ. Even a Trinitarian, R.S. Franks, stated that this verse cannot be used to prove that Jesus is God. He says, “It should be added that Romans 9:5 cannot be adduced to prove that Paul ever thought of Christ as God.” 

(Common Verses, 2010)

Even if Paul did intend to use the title "God" for Christ, this is not proof of his divinity as other men, such as Moses and the Davidic King in Psalm 45, were also called God. "God" had a broader meaning in the time of Jesus than it does now. "God" could simply be referring to the fact that Jesus is King of Kings and Lord of all as God's representative on earth, not that he is Yahweh.

6.     Romans 10:13

“For everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”

If Jesus isn’t God, how can anyone who calls on his name be saved?

Perhaps God gave him the authority and power for this to happen – but since Jesus' power and authority came from God, how could Jesus himself be God? Does God have a source of power apart from Himself?

After a healing by Jesus, Mark 9:8 says, “When the crowds saw it, they were afraid, and they glorified God, who had given such authority to men.” Jesus’ authority and power, which the crowds saw as being from God, led them to glorify God. His authority and power, as shown in this verse, does not mean he is God Himself. It cannot mean that as God by definition is never “given authority”. He inherently has it.

But this verse is quoting Joel 2:32 in the Old Testament, and the Lord in Joel 2 is Yahweh. Does this mean Jesus is Yahweh? Jesus is God's representative on earth. In the Old Testament in Joel 2, people were calling on the Lord, Yahweh. Here, Paul is using this quote to say calling on Jesus' name also results in salvation. Nothing in Scripture indicates that Yahweh and Jesus are the same being. This does not show Yahweh and Jesus are the same person, it shows that Jesus is occupying a salvific role also occupied by Yahweh. Yahweh has exalted Jesus to share His role as Savior.

(Common Verses, 2010)

7.       1 Corinthians 8:6

“…yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live.”

This passage is sometimes compared with Deuteronomy 6:4, ^“Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one.⁵ Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength.” Some Trinitarians think: because God is one, God and Jesus are one, and Jesus is Lord, this means that Jesus is God – the God talked about in Deuteronomy 6:4.

This is problematic for a few reasons. First, Acts 2:36 states that God MADE Jesus both Lord and Christ. This insinuates that he was not always Lord and Christ – certainly not before he was born in Bethlehem. Therefore, Christ could not have been the Lord, the “Yahweh”, of the Old Testament.

Also, just because the verse says “Lord” does not mean the author, in this case Paul, is referring to God.  Romans 10:9 also refers to Jesus as Lord, saying, “That if you confess with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.” The Greek word for Lord is “kurios”, and is used to denote respect and nobility throughout the New Testament. Other people besides God and Jesus are called “Lord”. The biblical unitarian blog gives the following examples:

• Property owners are called “Lord” (Matt. 20:8, “owner” = kurios)..

• Heads of households are called “Lord” (Mark 13:35, “owner” = kurios).

• Slave owners are called “Lord” (Matt. 10:24, “master” = kurios).

• Husbands are called “Lord” (1 Pet. 3:6, “master” = kurios).

• A son calls his father “Lord” (Matt. 21:30, “sir” = kurios).

• The Roman Emperor is called “Lord” (Acts 25:26, “His Majesty” = kurios).

• Roman authorities are called “Lord” (Matt. 27:63, “sir” = kurios).

  
  

If Jesus was God simply because he was called Lord, many other people would also be God, which is obviously problematic. Again, God made Jesus “Lord”; Acts 2:36 says, “God has made this Jesus…both Lord and Christ.” God, the Yahweh of the Old Testament, does not need anyone to make Him Lord. He has been Lord and God for eternity.

(Common Verses, 2010)

8. 1 Corinthians 10:1-5

   "For I do not want you to be unaware, brothers, that our fathers were all under the cloud, and all passed through the sea, ² and all were baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea, ³ and all ate the same spiritual food, ⁴ and all drank the same spiritual drink. For they drank from the spiritual rock that followed them, and the rock was Christ. ⁵ Nevertheless, with most of them God was not pleased, for they were overthrown in the wilderness."

   
   

   What does Paul mean here? Is he saying that Christ followed the Israelites when they were in the desert? The Old Testament makes no mention of Christ literally following the Israelites in the desert. Why would Christ be the one following? Shouldn't Christians be following Christ?

   
   

   The Greek word "follow" here means to "go after", either in time or space. In a spiritual sense, the Israelites did get nourishment from knowing about the Messiah who was to come. He, the Jewish Messiah, was prophesied about throughout the Old Testament, starting in Genesis 3:15 with the promise that the Messiah would crush Satan. In Exodus the Passover lamb foreshadowed Jesus. The manna the Israelites received in the desert foreshadowed Christ who was the "true bread from heaven" (John 6:32-33). The high priests were types of the one to come, Jesus, our forever high priest. In Numbers 24:7, 17, while the Israelites were in the desert, they received the prophesy "a star will come out of Jacob; a scepter will rise out of Israel" and "their kingdom will be exalted". In Deuteronomy 18:15-19 Moses specifically spoke about Jesus as the prophet to come who would have the words of God. The Israelites were looking forward to the time of the Messiah who followed them in history, "drinking from Christ" because of all in the Old Testament that foreshadowed and prophesied Christ coming in the flesh. They were encouraged and strengthened knowing the Messiah was coming.

   
   

(Common Verses, 2010)

9.     1 Corinthians 15:20-28

^“But Christ has indeed been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. ²¹ For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. ²² For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive. ²³ But each in turn: Christ, the first fruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him. ²⁴ Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. ²⁵ For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. ²⁶ The last enemy to be destroyed is death. ²⁷ For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. ²⁸ When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.”

If Jesus is God, why did he need to be raised from the dead by God?

First, he is not God, because God cannot die, as He is immortal. Also, God would not need someone else to raise Him from the dead.

If Jesus is God, why will he hand over the kingdom to God the Father in the end?

The kingdom ultimately belongs to God, not to Jesus. Jesus submits to God, not God to Jesus – this indicates Jesus is not God. There is no “mutual submission” in God and Jesus’ relationship. Jesus is always the one who submits. God by definition is the One submitted to, not the One who submits is. Therefore, Jesus is not God.

If Jesus is God, why does Paul clarify in verse 27 that God is not put under Christ, showing Paul is making a clear distinction between Christ and God?

Paul does not believe Christ is God. Christ will be made subject to God at the end so that God may be all in all. The plainest reading of the text is that Christ and God are different people with different abilities, sharing some of the same roles but not all. These shared roles were always given Jesus by God, while God inherently is Judge, Savior, and Lord as God. At the end of time, God will be all in all – not Christ.

If Jesus is God, why in verse 28 will he, at the end of time, be then subject to “him [God] who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all”?

I wonder how Jesus can be God if he will be subject to God at the end of time. He will not be all in all like God, which happens as a result of the Son being subject to God. Further, God put everything under Christ, it was not something that just “happened” to Jesus. God ordained it and made it happen. If Jesus was God, he would not need someone else to put everything under him – it would already have been under him.

10.     1 Corinthians 15:45-49

“Thus it is written, ‘The first man Adam became a living being, the last Adam became a life giving spirit. But it is not the spiritual that is first but the natural, and then the spiritual. The first man was from the earth, a man of dust; the second man is from heaven. As was the man of dust, so we also are those who are of the dust, and as is the man of heaven, so also are those who are of heaven. Just as we have borne the image of the man of dust, we shall also bear the image of the man of heaven.”

If Jesus is God, why does this passage repeatedly say that Jesus is a man, given that God says in the Old Testament he is not a man, and Jesus says in John 4 God is spirit?

Jesus is not God because he is a man not a spirit.

If Jesus is God, how will we also bear his same image – will we [also] be God?

Given that no humans are or will be God, bearing Jesus’ image does not make anyone God. Given that we will bear his image, at the end of time, Christ will be more like us in his attributes than like God (1 John 3:2). I explain this in detail in section 5, "Images of the Invisible God".

11.  Ephesians 2:4-10

“But God, being rich in mercy, because of the great love with which he loved us, even when we were dead in our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ – by grace you have been saved – and raised us up with him and seated us with him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, so that in the coming ages he might show the immeasurable riches of his grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. For by grace you have been saved, through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.”

If Jesus is God, why are God and Christ Jesus distinct in this passage?

Paul does not seem to believe that Jesus is God.

If Jesus is God, why did God make Christ alive with us, given that God is immortal and therefore cannot die?

Given that God had to make Christ alive with us, Christ is not God. God is immortal and cannot die. Only a mortal being would need to be “made alive”. Further, Christ is associated with other Christians in what is happening to him, not with God. As mentioned previously, the Bible shows that at the end of time Christ will share way more in common with other believers than he will with God (1 John 3:2). I explain this in full in section 5 of this blog, "Images of the Invisible God".

If Jesus is God, why is he raised up with us by God? Does it make sense for God to be raised up with us?

Jesus is not God because God would not need to be raised up by himself to be seated with himself. That is illogical, and God is logical. Jesus came and showed us the way by him overcoming himself. Then he was raised up after overcoming by his death on the cross. We are to imitate him. God only exalted him after his suffering and death.

12.  Ephesians 4:7-8

“But grace was given to each one of us according to the measure of Christ’s gift. Therefore it says, ‘When he ascended on high he led a host of captives, and he gave gifts to men.’” 

This quotes the Old Testament, where God is the person giving gifts. If Jesus isn’t God, why is this verse quoted from Psalm 68:18 talking about God in the Psalms? Does it make sense it would be talking about someone else when quoted here, referring to Jesus? 

This argument was already used in the Old Testament section, but here it is repeated: This is quoting the Old Testament, and in the Old Testament they were talking about God, while in the New Testament this is talking about Christ. So, many Trinitarians would claim that this means Jesus is God. However, there are examples of similar situations which do not show the people in the prophecies to be the same. For example, in Hosea 11:1, the Old Testament is speaking of Israel coming out of Egypt, but in Matthew 2:15 it is quoted as Christ coming out of Egypt as a child. In Jeremiah 31:15 Rachel is weeping, and in Matthew 2:18 Rachel is “weeping” due to the children in Bethlehem being killed. In Psalm 69:2 David is asking God to deliver him from his enemies, but in Acts 1:20 Peter is talking about Judas. 

Simply quoting a prophecy about God in the Old Testament referring to Jesus in the New does not mean he is God.

(Common Verses, 2010)

13.  Philippians 2:6-11

“[Jesus], though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. Therefore, God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” 

The Greek word “morphe”, translated “form” here, means “form” or “shape’. The NIV translators translated this as “being in very nature God”, but this is not what the Greek fundamentally means, which is that “morphe” is “outward appearance or form”. Paul was not trying to communicate that Jesus was God, as that is not what he believed. Jesus is the exact representation of God. Jesus was God’s agent. Paul does not say, "he was God"; Paul says "he was in the form of God". This is very different. Jesus is the image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15), just as all Christians will be one day (see section 5 of this blog).

Further, the word for "form", "morphe" is used elsewhere in Scripture. Mark 16:12 says, “After that, he appeared in a different form to two of them while they were walking along on their way to the country…” “Form” here is “morphe”, and is obviously referring to outer appearance not inner nature, as Christ’s inner nature would not change. Luke 24:13-33 uses “morphe” to refer to Christ’s outer appearance on the Road to Emmaus, as the disciples did not recognize him. So, “morphe” is not referring to Christ’s inner nature being like God’s.

Even if it was referring to that, this is not proof of Jesus’ deity. Other verses point to Jesus possessing the divine nature in that Jesus is the “image of the invisible God” (Colossians 1:15) as he perfectly obeyed the Father in everything. Jesus was the Son of God, and he did not use this for his own gain but submitted himself to God instead. Possessing the divine nature is not proof of deity – this is something for all believers (1 Peter 1:4).

What is more, these verses are not saying that Jesus had inherent equality with God as if he was God himself. The point is that Jesus was the new Adam and did not grasp at being God like Adam did. He chose to humble himself and not exalt himself. That is the only conclusion that can be drawn when looking at the context of all Scripture. It also does not make logical sense to “grasp at being equal to yourself”. If Jesus did not grasp at being equal to God, this shows that he was not God, not that he was. You do not grasp for something you already have.

Even in the context of this passage, Jesus is described as being highly exalted and given the name above every name because of what he did on the cross, all to the glory of God ultimately – he is not exalted because he is God. There is nothing to suggest that Jesus had that exaltation previous to overcoming on the cross. He had to go through the cross to be glorified. The gospels all point to that. Isaiah 53:12 says that, “Therefore I will divide him a portion with the many, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong, because he poured out his soul to death and was numbered with the transgressors; yet he bore the sin of many, and makes intercession for the transgressors.” Jesus was glorified BECAUSE of what he did on the cross. He was glorified and seated next to God AFTER he gave his life and overcame. Jesus gained the kingdom by his obedience to God.

But doesn’t this show Jesus being worshipped? Praised, certainly. Exalted, yes. But here, Jesus is not being worshipped as God. How could he be if God is clearly distinct from him in these verses? How could he be if the reason he is exalted is because of what he did on the cross? He does not inherently receive this praise apart from the work of the cross, while God inherently receives praise as God simply because of who He is. All the praise due Jesus here goes back ultimately to glorify the Father. Refer back to this post for a full explanation of why giving praise and honor to Jesus is not proof of his deity: Is Jesus God? Part 5: What about Jesus worship?

Again, Paul could have just said, “Jesus is God”, in this passage or in any of his letters, but he did not. If this was his point, why didn’t he just say it? “Jesus, being God,” he could have written, but instead he writes, “Jesus, being in the form of God”.

These verses do not show that Jesus is God.

(Common Verses, 2010)

14.        Colossian 1:15-20 

“He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities – all things were created through him and for him. And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent. For him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell, and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross.”  

This passage includes “he is the image of the invisible God”, which indicates he is not God Himself but His image – as God is defined as invisible. Also, the image of me, for example, would be a photo. Obviously, this image of me shows some of what I am like but is not actually, literally, me.

Nevertheless, this passage is confusing. On the one hand, it seems to show that Jesus was the Creator: “by him all things were created”. If he was the Creator, he would be God. Does Paul think this? Yet on the other, Jesus is called “the firstborn of all creation”, the plainest meaning of which is that he is part of creation as firstborn.

Translating the Greek pronouns in the passage differently yet staying true to the Greek meaning of the word, offers a possible solution, given that no other Scriptures indicate Jesus was the Creator.

Alternate translation of Colossians 1:15-20, changes italicized:

“He [Jesus] is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. For because of [previous: by] him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities – all things were created through him and for him. And he is before all things, and with [previous: in] him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent. For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell, and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross.”

What if God created the world because of, or “by”, Jesus, because he loved him so much, just as any Father wants to give all he can to his child and bless them? What if because of Jesus God created the world – “through” him in a way? Could all things hold together in him because God created all things for him? Do these verses mean Jesus is God, or could they point to God’s amazing love and goodness in blessing humans with creation? As expressed earlier, all Christians will be filled with the fullness of God like Jesus one day.

Possible parallel: I lived in an inner city until I was 6 years old. My parents were involved in nonprofit work in the neighborhood there. When it was time for me to go to kindergarten, they did not want me to be put in public school because the public schools were not good. So, they decided to start a Christian school for me and for other neighborhood kids to go to as a better option. The school is now known as one of the best schools in the state. My parents and others they knew worked together to make the best school they could.

This is a very imperfect parallel, but just as my parents loved me and wanted the best for me, and as a result decided to start a school – something they would not have done otherwise – in maybe the same way, God decided to create the world for His son (and for the children that followed). Maybe God would not have gone to all the trouble to create the world if it was not for His son. Perhaps, going back to the prepositions, He created the world and everything in it along “with” His son, “because of” His son, and “for” His son. Maybe this passage points less to Jesus being Creator and more to God the Father’s amazing love and care for Jesus.

15.  Colossians 2:9-10

“For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily, and you have been filled in him, who is the head of all rule and authority.” 

If Jesus isn’t God, how could the whole fullness of deity dwell in him?

The last part of the verse indicates that Christians have also been filled with the whole fullness of deity – which while no one is experiencing that fully now, when Christians are all conformed to the image of Christ, Christians will fully experience that. Jesus is filled with all the fullness of God, which we one day will be as well. We know this because Paul prayed for it in Ephesians 3:19, “that you may be filled to the measure of all the fullness of God.”  If this is a promise for all believers, how can this prove Jesus’ deity, given Christians are not God? Christians will also have the whole fullness of deity dwelling in us one day.

(Common Verses, 2010)

16.  1 Timothy 2:5

“For there is one God and there is one mediator between God and man, the man Christ Jesus, who gave himself as a ransom for all, which is the testimony given at the proper time.”

If Jesus is God, why are God and Jesus distinct in this verse? Why does this verse say there is one God who is distinct from the man and mediator Christ Jesus?

Jesus is separate from the “one God”, so he is not the one God. He is a man, and God is not a man (Hosea 11:9).

17.  1 Timothy 6:16

“I charge you in the presence of God, who gives life to all things, and of Christ Jesus, who in his testimony before Pontius Pilate made the good confession, to keep the commandment unstained and free from reproach until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ, which he will display at the proper time – he who is blessed and only Sovereign, the king of kings, and Lord of lords, who alone has immortality, who dwells in unapproachable light, whom no one has ever seen or can see. To him be honor and eternal dominion. Amen.”

If Jesus is God, why are God and Christ Jesus distinct in this passage? Why can people see Jesus, given that God is someone “no one has ever seen or can see”?

Paul does not think that God and Christ Jesus are the same person given their distinction in role, ability, and characteristics. Paul writes that “he” – God – will display Jesus Christ at the proper time, and this God is blessed, only Sovereign, the king of kings, the lord of lords, alone has immortality, dwells in unapproachable light, and no one has ever seen or can see him (God). He is not describing Jesus given the sentence structure, but also given the fact that no one has ever seen or can see this person – God. In contrast, thousands of people have seen Jesus, Paul himself saw Jesus after Jesus was resurrected (Acts 9), and many will see Jesus when he returns. Jesus is not God – certainly not according to Paul.

18.  Titus 2:11-14

^9 “Teach slaves to be subject to their masters in everything, to try to please them, not to talk back to them, ¹⁰ and not to steal from them, but to show that they can be fully trusted, so that in every way they will make the teaching about God our Savior attractive.

For the grace of God has appeared that offers salvation to all people. ¹² It teaches us to say “No” to ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright and godly lives in this present age, waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people for his own possession who are zealous for good works.” 

If Jesus isn’t God, why is he called “our great God” in this verse?

Different translations say different things, and this passage can be translated without stating that Jesus is God. For example, the NASB says, “looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus,” which does not show that Jesus is God but that he is the glory of God (Common Verses, 2010). The ASV, Douay-Rheims, and NAB translations are similar to the NASB and do not show that Jesus is God. Grammatically, this verse could be understood as two beings, our great God, and our Savior, Jesus. So, Trinitarian scholars and translators differ on their understanding as to if this verse indicates Jesus is God.  The Greek literally reads, “awaiting the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of the great God and Savior of us Jesus Christ” (“The Trinity Delusion: Titus 2:13”). The original Greek did not have punctuation, making this more difficult to understand Paul’s meaning.

Contextually, Paul refers to “God our Savior” in verse 10, 3 verses before Titus 2:13, referring to the Father, as the God of grace who brings salvation. Given this, it follows that the “great God and Savior” would be referring to the Father, and that Jesus is the glory of that God. This fits well with Hebrews 1:3, that says that Jesus is the radiance of God’s glory. Also, Matthew 16:27 says that “the Son of Man is going to come in the glory of his Father with his angels” when he returns. Titus 2:13 is referring to just this time (“The Trinity Delusion: Titus 2:13”). Therefore, the better interpretation is the NASB’s, with the God and Savior referring to God the Father and Jesus being the glory of God.

As mentioned previously, even if Paul was giving Jesus the title of "God", this is not proof that Jesus is God as in "Yahweh". "God" in that culture had multiple meanings besides "Yahweh", like Moses being called "God" and the Davidic king in Psalm 45, who Jesus is the ultimate fulfillment of, being called "God", though neither of those individuals were "God" as in "Almighty God", Yahweh. Jesus certainly occupies the highest role of any man, so the title "God" is certain contexts is appropriate, as is shown in the book of Hebrews below. Given Jesus lacks so many of the divine attributes, among many other evidences already explained in my posts, Jesus cannot be God as in the Yahweh of the Old Testament.

Hebrews (unknown author)

1. Hebrews 1:8-12

“But of the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions. And, ‘You, Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of your hands; they will perish, but you remain; they will all wear out like a garment, like a robe you will roll them up, like a garment they will be changed. But you are the same, and your years will have no end.” 

If Jesus isn’t God, why does God (the Father) say to the Son, “Your throne, O God”, clearly calling him God?

The author is quoting Psalm 45:7. This psalm is about a human king who has been blessed by God. If this is proof that Jesus is God, the Davidic king in Psalm 45 could also be called God. As discussed above, the term “God” had wider meanings in the Jewish and Roman context than it does for us today. “God” did not always mean Yahweh, Almighty God, and Psalm 45 is a clear example where God calls the Israelite king “God” without meaning the man is actual deity. Again, even Moses was called “god” by God in the context of his role. The term “God” used in both these instances speaks to role, not the Creator God Yahweh.

Further, the translation could be “your throne is God forever and ever” instead of “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever”. A throne is a source of authority. Jesus’ authority comes from God. This passage is not proof of Jesus’ deity.

(Common Verses, 2010)

If Jesus isn’t God, why does God say that Jesus, the Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, with the heavens the work of his hands, saying he is the same and will live forever?

According to 1 Corinthians 3:11, Jesus is the foundation of the church. Could this verse be referring to this? Or that Jesus essentially laid the foundation of the new creation?

Chapter 2 gives insight to these questions. Hebrews 2:5 states the author is talking about the foundation to the new creation – “For it was not to angels that God subjected the world to come, of which we are speaking.” While Jesus did not lay the foundations of the world in the beginning, he is laying the foundation of the beginning of the new world by his death and resurrection. Hebrews 2:10 uses the language of “foundation” as well, states that Jesus is the “founder of…salvation”.

This interpretation is best as understood in context, Hebrews 1 cannot be referring to Jesus as God given other verses in the book. For example, Hebrews 2:11 states that Jesus’ source and Christians’ source are the same (God), and we are his brothers. This shows the author of Hebrews does not think Jesus is God, as God does not have a source: certainly not the same source as Christians. Also, Hebrews 1 starts out with the intent to prove that Jesus is greater than the angels. If Jesus was God, why didn’t the author just say that Jesus is God - game over, he is greater than angels? Instead, he uses different verses to prove his point throughout Hebrews 1 that Jesus, the Son of God, is greater than the angels. (Common Verses, 2010)

2.  Hebrews 2:17-18

“Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. For because he himself has suffered when tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.”

If Jesus is God, how was it possible that he was made like his brothers in every respect, given that other humans are not God?

God does not lie. His Word always says what is true. If Jesus was made like his brothers in every respect, he could not be God, as then he would not be like his brothers in every respect.

If Jesus is God, why is he in the service of God?

God is by definition the One served. Jesus is serving God. I wonder how Jesus can be God and also in His service. Does God by definition serve anyone?

If Jesus is God, how could he have been tempted, if God is not tempted (James 1:13)?

How could Jesus truly help us when we are tempted if he was not really tempted?

Jesus is not God because he suffered when tempted, and God cannot be tempted.

3. Hebrews 5:1-10

   "Every high priest is selected from among the people and is appointed to represent the people in matters related to God, to offer gifts and sacrifices for sins. ² He is able to deal gently with those who are ignorant and are going astray, since he himself is subject to weakness. ³ This is why he has to offer sacrifices for his own sins, as well as for the sins of the people. ⁴ And no one takes this honor on himself, but he receives it when called by God, just as Aaron was.

   ⁵ In the same way, Christ did not take on himself the glory of becoming a high priest. But God said to him,

   “You are my Son;    today I have become your Father.”^[a]

   ⁶ And he says in another place,

   “You are a priest forever,    in the order of Melchizedek.”^[b]

   ⁷ During the days of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission. ⁸ Son though he was, he learned obedience from what he suffered ⁹ and, once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him ¹⁰ and was designated by God to be high priest in the order of Melchizedek."

   
   

   These verses are so clear regarding Jesus not being God as he is our high priest. High priests, by definition, are human mediators between people and God. He is our representative to God to offer a sacrifice to sin. Verse 5 says that Jesus "in the same way" as Aaron, did not take on himself the glory of becoming a high priest but was given the role by God. Jesus submits to God and is called by God to be a high priest. He needed saving from death (verse 7), and so prayed and petitioned God that he would be saved. God does not need saving by definition; He is always the One who is doing the saving. Jesus also learned obedience from what he suffered and he became perfect. God does not learn obedience or become perfect. God has always been perfect as He does not change (Malachi 3:6), and He is the One humans are obedient to, not the One who needs to learn obedience.

   
   

   How can Jesus be God?

   
   

4. Hebrews 10:5-7

   ^5 "Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said:

   “Sacrifice and offering you did not desire, but a body you prepared for me;⁶ with burnt offerings and sin offerings you were not pleased.⁷ Then I said, ‘Here I am—it is written about me in the scroll— I have come to do your will, my God.’”

   
   

   God does not have a God. Christ came into the world to do God's will. God prepared a body for Christ. How can Christ be God?

   
   

5. Hebrews 13:15-16

   ^15 "Through Jesus, therefore, let us continually offer to God a sacrifice of praise—the fruit of lips that openly profess his name. ¹⁶ And do not forget to do good and to share with others, for with such sacrifices God is pleased."

   
   

   We do not offer Jesus a sacrifice of praise: through Jesus, Christians offer a sacrifice of praise to God. Jesus is our mediator to worship God. As Jesus is not God, Christians are directed to sacrifice to God through Jesus, our high priest and mediator. We are not directed to worship Jesus.

James

James was written by James, the brother of Jesus, and lends insight as to what he thought concerning Jesus’ deity.

James 1:13

“Let no one say when he is tempted, ‘I am being tempted by God,’ for God cannot be tempted with evil, and he himself tempts no one. But each person is tempted when he is lured and enticed by his own desire.”

James wrote this knowing that Jesus was tempted throughout his life and specifically by the devil (Matthew 4:1-11, Luke 4:1-13). James did not think Jesus was God as he states God cannot be tempted.

1 and 2 Peter

These two letters were written by Peter, and show what he thought regarding Jesus’ deity, which is already shown by Luke in the book of Acts given his account of Peter's words and actions.

1.     1 Peter 2:4-10

^4 “As you come to him, the living Stone—rejected by humans but chosen by God and precious to him— ⁵ you also, like living stones, are being built into a spiritual house to be a holy priesthood, offering spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ.”

Jesus was rejected by humans but chosen by God, just like us. Peter considers Jesus to be distinct from God and “precious to him”. Jesus and the Church are all stones being built into a spiritual house to be a holy priesthood – we, like Christ, are meant to be priests.

What is more, we are to offer spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ not to Jesus Christ. Priests made sacrifices to God. This is shown throughout the whole Old Testament. Notably, Christians are not making sacrifices to Jesus but to God through Jesus. Peter sees a clear distinction between God and Jesus.

 ^6 “For in Scripture it says:

“See, I lay a stone in Zion,    a chosen and precious cornerstone, and the one who trusts in him    will never be put to shame.”

⁷ Now to you who believe, this stone is precious. But to those who do not believe,

“The stone the builders rejected    has become the cornerstone,”

⁸ and,

“A stone that causes people to stumble    and a rock that makes them fall.”

They stumble because they disobey the message—which is also what they were destined for.

⁹ But you are a chosen people, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, God’s special possession, that you may declare the praises of him who called you out of darkness into his wonderful light. ¹⁰ Once you were not a people, but now you are the people of God; once you had not received mercy, but now you have received mercy.”

Peter affirms that Christians are the chosen people of God, with Jesus as our cornerstone.

2.     1 Peter 3:18

“For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit.”

If Christ was responsible for bringing us TO God, it follows he is not God himself. He is our mediator.

3.     1 Peter 3:22

“...[Jesus Christ] has gone into heaven and is at God’s right hand – with angels, authorities and powers in submission to him.”

If Jesus is at God’s right hand, he is not God himself. He is distinct from God. Moreover, God is the one who put angels, authorities, and powers in submission to him. This was not always the case (Acts 2:36, Matthew 28:18), meaning he is not God, who inherently had that authority.

4. 1 Peter 4:11

   "If anyone speaks, they should do so as one who speaks the very words of God. If anyone serves, they should do so with the strength God provides, so that in all things God may be praised through Jesus Christ. To him be the glory and the power for ever and ever. Amen."

Similar to Hebrews 13, we again see a model of praising God through Jesus Christ. Peter directs Christians to worship God through Christ. God should receive the glory and power for ever and ever. He does not direct us to worship Jesus as God.

5.      2 Peter 1:1-2

“Simeon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ; To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ: May grace and peace be multiplied to you in the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord." 

If Jesus isn’t God, why is he called “our God” in this verse?

This could also be translated “God, and our Savior Jesus Christ”. There was no punctuation in the original Greek. Further, this makes the most sense as in the next verse God and Jesus are spoken of as separate. In all the other epistles Jesus and God are distinct beings in the openings. 

(Common Verses, 2010)

Conclusion: There is 0 evidence in the remaining New Testament books that Jesus is God.