Is Jesus God? Part 12: Was Jesus always sinless or did he become sinless?

Christians today universally believe that Jesus was sinless his whole life, and the majority Church believe that Jesus is God. But is this what the New Testament reveals? Did the apostles believe Jesus to be sinless his whole life? What about Jesus himself? If Jesus was actually sinless his whole life, there are some passages that are difficult to explain. Consider the following:

1. Jesus was sanctified. The Father sanctified him and he sanctified himself.

John 10:36 says, “…do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said ‘I am the Son of God?’”

If Jesus had to be consecrated (sanctified), how could he be God? Consecration means sanctification: the Greek word is “hagiazō” and means to sanctify or be holy.  Here are some other definitions:

Jesus uses this word again in John 17 when he prays to God to sanctify the disciples and also explains how he sanctifies himself.  In John 17:17-19 Jesus says, “Sanctify them by the truth; your word is truth. 18 As you sent me into the world, I have sent them into the world. 19 For them I sanctify myself, that they too may be truly sanctified.” Perhaps he is referring back to John 10:36 when he explains how he was consecrated and sent into the world (the same word is used in these verses, just translated “sanctify”). Just as the Father sent Jesus into the world, he sends them into the world: sanctified. Further, Jesus reveals here, on the night he will be arrested, that he is still being sanctified. He is still being made holy. He says “I sanctify myself” in the present tense. He is purifying himself. So, Jesus is not fully sinless on the night before his death, and he certainly is not God.

Additionally, Hebrews 10:29 says, "How much worse punishment, do you think, will be deserved by the one who has trampled underfoot the Son of God, and has profaned the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and has outraged the Spirit of grace?" This verse reveals that Jesus was sanctified by the blood of the covenant - in other words, by his suffering. Jesus was not always sanctified; he had to be sanctified.

If this is true, how can he be God? God does not need to be sanctified; God has always been completely holy. And "becoming holy (or, one could say, sinless)" is what it means to be sanctified. The other passages that speak of sanctification regarding humans (so, Christ or other people) speak of sanctification in this way. This is true in John 17:17 speaking of the disciples being sanctified, John 17:19 speaking of Jesus and the disciples being sanctified, Acts 20:32 speaking of the Church as sanctified in Christ, Acts 26:18 speaking of the Church that is sanctified in Christ, 1 Corinthians 1:2 speaking of the Church that is sanctified in Christ, 1 Corinthians 6:11 speaking of the Church that is sanctified in Christ, Ephesians 5:26 speaking of the Church being sanctified by Christ, 1 Thessalonians 5:23 speaking of God as sanctifying the Church, Hebrews 2:11 speaking of the Church as sanctified in Christ, Hebrews 10:14 speaking of the Church as sanctified, Hebrews 10:29 speaking of Christ being sanctified by his suffering, Hebrews 13:12 speaking of Jesus sanctifying the Church, Jude 1:1 speaking of the Church as sanctified in Christ, and Revelation 22:11 speaking of those who are holy (synonymous with sanctified). So, becoming holy and sinless is synonymous with sanctification, and 3 verses indicate that Jesus himself was sanctified and made holy. This means he was not always holy, which means he was not always sinless. Otherwise, Jesus would not have needed to be sanctified. All the passages speaking of the Church being already sanctified in Christ because of what he did on the cross is speaking to the Church’s holiness and righteousness because of what Christ did for them. In all these verses, sanctification is still referring to holiness and righteousness. So again, if Jesus was sanctified, he was made holy and righteous. This is the definition of sanctification.

2. Jesus does not think he is good. He thinks only God is good. In response to being called good in Mark 10:18, Jesus says:

 “Why do you call me good?” Jesus answered. “No one is good – except God alone.”

Matthew 19:17 and Luke 18:19 share the same story. Trinitarians interpret this to mean Jesus is trying to allude to the fact that he, in fact, is God. Is that really what Jesus is trying to say here? As shown in my post on the synoptic gospels, Jesus never claims to be God in Matthew, Mark, or Luke. Other posts show there is no evidence for Jesus being God in any other books of the Bible either. So, given Jesus is not God. and he says he is not good, how can he possibly think he is sinless? If he was sinless, he would be good like God. Consider: the opposite of good is bad. Jesus is acknowledging here that he has been, at times, less than good, as only God is completely good. If he has been less than good – so, bad to a certain degree – he cannot have been sinless his whole life. This fits with John 17:19 where Jesus reveals that he is sanctifying himself – he is in the process of doing so – even on the night before his death.

To Trinitarians who think that Jesus here is subtly claiming to be God and trying to hint that he is God, the one who alone is good, consider: if anyone else said Jesus’ words in response to being called good, no one would consider that they are claiming to be God. Instead, they would assume they are claiming to not be good. This is how the hearers of this conversation took Jesus’ meaning, as otherwise Jesus would have been accused of blasphemy on the spot.

3. Jesus was made perfect. He was not always perfect. This is stated multiple times in the Bible.

“In bringing many sons and daughters to glory, it was fitting that God, for whom and through whom everything exists, should make the pioneer of their salvation perfect through what he suffered.”  Hebrews 2:10

“Son though he was, he learned obedience from what he suffered, and once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him and was designated by God to be high priest in the order of Melchizedek.” Hebrews 5:9

“For the law appoints as high priests men in all their weakness; but the oath, which came after the law, appointed the Son, who has been made perfect forever.” Hebrews 7:28

“And He said unto them, “Go ye and tell that fox, ‘Behold, I cast out devils and I do cures today and tomorrow, and the third day I shall be perfected.’” Luke 13:32

How could Jesus be made perfect if he was sinless his whole life? How could he be made perfect if he was God? What is the biblical definition of perfect? Strong’s Concordance says:

So, if someone is perfect, they are perfect in character and fully mature. Trinitarians, when considering that Jesus became perfect, define him being perfect as that he was “brought to completion”. I’ve heard Jesus’ perfection described as he lived a perfect life akin to building a house. The house was not complete until the whole structure was completed, but there were not mistakes made along the way – a perfect foundation was laid, followed by everything else being perfect, until Jesus was perfected – but, of course, he made no mistakes. But if that interpretation is actually true, what real meaning does “become perfect” have? What was Jesus’ goal? What did it mean for him to “become perfect”? Does this just mean he lived 33 sinless years and died on a cross, and then he was perfect after that? And he was imperfect until he sacrificed his life? Or does this mean that Jesus was imperfect in character – so, not sinless his whole life – and had to be perfected in suffering and become sinless? That perspective certainly fits better with what John says about Jesus being sanctified and Jesus’ proclamation in Matthew, Mark, and Luke that no one is good but God, including himself. Further, the other ways “perfect” is used in the New Testament show that “perfect”, as applied to humans, means perfect in character. Imperfect people do not exhibit perfect love. So: if Jesus was made perfect by what he suffered, he grew in character and became perfect in love – so, sinless – he was not always sinless. Multiple passages demonstrate that if Jesus “became perfect”, what the Bible is revealing is that Jesus was not sinless his whole life – he became sinless.

Notably, every time "perfect" is used in the New Testament about people, it is used to indicate moral perfection. For example, in Matthew 5:48, Jesus tells people to be perfect as the Father is in a moral way. In Matthew 19:21, Jesus tells the rich young ruler to be perfect in a moral way too, by selling all his possessions, giving to the poor, and following Jesus. In 1 Corinthians 14:20, believers are exhorted by Paul to be perfect in their thinking - i.e., to be mature and loving - to be morally pure in their thinking. In Ephesians 4:13, the Church should aim to grow "to perfect manhood, to the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ." What could this perfect manhood mean but being without sin, at least in part? Philippians 3:12 and 3:15 talk about Paul not being perfect yet - and perfect how? Perfect in moral character. Paul says in Colossians 1:29, "that we may present everyone perfect in Christ". What could this mean but referring to godliness? Colossians 4:12 is a prayer by Paul that believers would stand mature and fully assured in all the will of God. What does standing perfect mean but to be sinless? In Hebrews 5:14 mature people are constantly discerning what is right from what is wrong, so mature, or perfect, people is referring to character. In James 1:4, if someone lacks nothing, they are perfect. Certainly, this includes being sinless! If someone was perfect and sinful at the same time they would lack. James 3:2 says that the perfect man will not stumble in what they say with their tongue; they will be perfectly moral in what they say. Galatians 3:3 speaks to believers being perfected by the Spirit and not the flesh. And what is the work of the Spirit? To sanctify believers. This is also talking about character. Hebrews 6:1 urges Christians to go on to perfection... and how? Through pursuing good character. Hebrews 7:11 acknowledges that people were not made holy, or perfect, in the old law, but in the new covenant with Jesus. What could this mean apart from being sinless? The priesthood was built on atoning for sin. Hebrews 9:9 also talks about the conscience being perfected. Later in verse 14 of the same chapter, the author of Hebrews talks about "purifying" a Christian's conscience, showing that "perfect" and "purify" are used interchangeably. "Perfect" is used again to talk about purity and moral character, as purifying someone’s conscience is about their moral character. Hebrews 10:1 and Hebrews 10:14 talk about how only Jesus' sacrifice perfected Christians forever and made them perfect - and what does that mean apart from Christ imputing his righteousness on them? The word "perfect" refers to character. Hebrews 12:23 connects righteousness with being made perfect. All of these examples show the word "perfect" in the Bible refers to moral perfection.

Given this, the 4 verses that refer to Jesus becoming perfect must also refer to him becoming morally perfect. Otherwise, the word loses its meaning. Does it make sense that the Bible uses the same word, “perfect”, in one way with Christians and another way in Scripture when talking about Jesus? We should be consistent with our interpretations of Scripture and not let theological bias impact our interpretations of certain words like the world "perfect". If Jesus became perfect, he was not always sinless, just like the rest of humanity.

So, in the Bible, perfect means perfect in character. Christians explain “perfect” in Christ’s case to mean completion with consistent sinless perfection, but for Christians it means becoming morally perfect. This inconsistency shows how much Christendom has idolized Christ. Hebrews does not make any distinction (nor do other books of the Bible) between perfection meaning completion and perfection meaning becoming fully purified and holy. It means both! Jesus became complete because he became sinless – this is part of what Jesus meant when he said “It is finished” (John 19:30) on the cross – he had become perfect, sinless, by what he suffered.  Such is the journey for all Christians. Perfection for a person in the Bible means being without sin and sharing in God’s divine nature. Jesus did not fully do that until he became perfect.

To emphasize some of the before mentioned Scriptures: Hebrews 7:11 states, “If perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood—and indeed the law given to the people established that priesthood—why was there still need for another priest to come, one in the order of Melchizedek, not in the order of Aaron?” So, perfection is tied to being without sin, as the Levitical priesthood was about making atonement for sin. Hebrews 7:19 affirms this, “(for the law made nothing perfect), and a better hope is introduced, by which we draw near to God.” The law did not bring sanctification – Christ does, so that we can draw near to God. Drawing near to God is equated with being “perfect” – this has to do with moral character. Hebrews 10:1 reveals “perfect” has to do with sanctification, or moral character, too: “The law is only a shadow of the good things that are coming—not the realities themselves. For this reason it can never, by the same sacrifices repeated endlessly year after year, make perfect those who draw near to worship.” What can “make perfect” mean besides make them sanctified and holy? Hebrews 10 is contrasting the law with what Christ did on the cross, which does make people perfect. And how? By them “completing a race” that does not have to do with growing in character – Christendom’s definition of how Christ became perfect? Or does it mean real character growth and sanctification? The author of Hebrews seems to, at the very least, consider “perfect” to mean moral perfection. This is notable as the author of Hebrews says 3 times that Jesus was made perfect. Again, Hebrews 7:28 says, “For the law appoints as high priests men in all their weakness; but the oath, which came after the law, appointed the Son, who has been made perfect forever.” Jesus has been made perfect, so he was not always perfect – he did not always have a tight reign on his tongue, for example, as will be explained.

The law and sacrifices cannot make us perfect. What does that mean? Completion? Completion of what? Completion of mature, loving character. Being perfect means being perfect as the Father is perfect as Jesus said in his sermon on the mount (Matthew 5:48) after a long sermon of moral commandments and teaching. So, in context this means being morally perfect. This is further evidence that Jesus BECAME morally perfect; he was not always morally perfect. This is what the definition of “perfect” in the New Testament means in context.

Hebrews 10:14 says, “For by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who are being made holy.” We are perfect in God’s eyes because of Christ. We are being made holy – truly being made perfect. Hebrews 11:40 says, “…since God had planned something better for us so that only together with us would they be made perfect.” Perfect – yes, completing a race – but what is the Christian race? To be made fully mature in Christ. Hebrews 12:2 says, “…fixing our eyes on Jesus, the pioneer and perfecter of faith. For the joy set before him he endured the cross, scorning its shame, and sat down at the right hand of the throne of God.” Christ perfects our faith – morally so. This cannot be separated from some sort of “completion”. But again, what is being completed? Our love – our character.

Hebrews 12:23 says, “…to the church of the firstborn, whose names are written in heaven. You have come to God, the Judge of all, to the spirits of the righteous made perfect.” Righteousness and perfection go together, as this verse demonstrates. When Christians read this, they read that the spirits of the righteous are made perfect as in the spirits of the righteous are made morally infallible. But if we are talking about Christ, we consider it means “completion”. Completion of what? A race? And what race? That of becoming like God - perfect in love. It is not about completion of consistently sinless works but a completion of character to share in the divine nature of the Father. Jesus became perfect – he became perfect in character.

Again, Jesus says in Matthew 5:48, “Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect.” In context, Jesus is clearly referring to perfection meaning moral character. He has just taught the crowds to love their enemies among many other moral commands – which, as will be shown, he did not perfectly do during his earthly ministry. Being perfect is sharing the divine nature of love with the Father. Jesus grew in love and maturity over his life.

4. Jesus learned obedience.

“During the days of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission. 8 Son though he was, he learned obedience from what he suffered 9 and, once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him 10 and was designated by God to be high priest in the order of Melchizedek.” Hebrews 5:7-10

Notably, Jesus did not become the source of eternal salvation until he was made perfect. Further, Jesus learned obedience. How could he possibly have been sinless his whole life if he had to learn obedience? Needing to learn something means that you do not know it before. God disciplined him through suffering, and he learned to be obedient to God – just like we all do.

Concerning this verse, John Piper said, “Learned obedience was not moving from disobedience, it means moving from untested obedience to tested. Tried and proven.”  This is the view of most Christians regarding Jesus’ learned obedience. Yet if Jesus was already in a state, his entire life, of complete obedience, such that when he was tested he was always obedient, what did he actually have to learn regarding obedience? What Piper is describing is someone who has already learned obedience. The person who has learned obedience will always be obedient in any situation. The person who still has to learn obedience will sometimes fail and need to adjust.

This is the definition of learning. For example, I am a math teacher. If I am teaching my students how to solve two-step equations, only the student who has already learned two-step equations will never make a mistake – because they already know it. However, if they do not know it, they will continue to make mistakes and need practice until they achieve mastery. John Piper’s description of Jesus learning obedience cannot be compared to any real situation of a real person learning something. In every case of someone learning something in the world, people make mistakes, need practice, and then when they fully learn something they do not make any mistakes any longer.

John Piper, along with most of the Church, are changing the meaning of the word “learn” to try to prove that Jesus was sinless his whole life. “Learning” means growing in an area where you do not already know something. Again, if Jesus learned obedience, he did not know obedience fully his whole life. The only way that statement could actually be true would be if he failed, at times, to be obedient, and then, perhaps, he was disciplined, he repented, and he grew from his mistakes – just like every other person learns obedience.

Again, if Jesus was fully obedient his entire life, all that proves is that he had nothing to learn – he was already obedient. The trials he went through would just be revealing what he already was (obedient and sinless) – Jesus would not actually be authentically learning something new.

5. The gospels show Jesus was not always perfect in character.

A.    James 3:2 says, “We all stumble in many ways. Anyone who is never at fault in what they say is perfect, able to keep their whole body in check.”  “Perfect” here means someone who is morally perfect – whose words are always of God – they are never at fault. If Jesus was not perfect (and the same Greek word, “teleios”, is used to say he became perfect), he did not always say the right thing. The gospels show that he did not.

In Matthew 5:21-22, Jesus teaches the people:

“You have heard that it was said to those of old, “You shall not murder; and whoever murders will be liable to judgment.” But I say to you that everyone who is angry with his brother will be liable to judgment; whoever insults his brother will be liable to the council; and whoever says, “You fool!” will be liable to the hell of fire.”

But Jesus called the Pharisees fools: “Fools and blind!” (Matthew 13:17) Jesus was not yet perfect as James 3:2 describes perfect – he got angry at the Pharisees and called them “fools”, which he taught in the Sermon on the Mount was wrong. Love is patient; love is kind (1 Corinthians 13:4). God, who is Love, would not have spoken to the Pharisees in that way. This shows that Jesus was still growing in love – he was not yet the perfect man that James 3:2 describes. He still sometimes was at fault in what he said. Jesus’ words are explained away by those who believe he is God because it fits their theology, but quite plainly, Jesus does in Matthew 23 what he explicitly taught others not to do in Matthew 5. This fits with the book of Hebrews’ consistent description of Jesus as a man who became perfect by what he suffered – but who was not always perfect with his tongue, which is part of what it means to be perfect.

B. Mark 7:21-28 shows this even more acutely:

“Leaving that place, Jesus withdrew to the region of Tyre and Sidon. 22 A Canaanite woman from that vicinity came to him, crying out, “Lord, Son of David, have mercy on me! My daughter is demon-possessed and suffering terribly.”

23 Jesus did not answer a word. So his disciples came to him and urged him, “Send her away, for she keeps crying out after us.”

24 He answered, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.”

25 The woman came and knelt before him. “Lord, help me!” she said.

26 He replied, “It is not right to take the children’s bread and toss it to the dogs.”

27 “Yes it is, Lord,” she said. “Even the dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their master’s table.”

28 Then Jesus said to her, “Woman, you have great faith! Your request is granted.” And her daughter was healed at that moment.” Mark 7:21-28

Jesus did not show the heart of the Father in this story. Jesus’ heart was not yet fully pure. God would never have responded in this way. Again, God is love, and love is patient and kind (1 Corinthians 13:4). Jesus’ words were not kind. Perhaps God was changing Jesus’ heart through this woman’s courage to make him open to not just the Jews but also the Gentiles as part of his ministry. Jesus was in the process of becoming who God intended him to be: a light to the Gentiles too. Jesus may say here that he was sent only to the Jews, but obviously that is not true – he was sent to give his life for the whole world, as Old Testament prophecies and other New Testament passages, not to mention the whole book of Acts, attest to. There was no good reason for him to not immediately help her – true love would not ignore a desperate woman whose daughter was in extreme suffering, nor would true love call the woman a dog. If we are honest with ourselves, we know this to be true. Would you feel loved by God if He ignored your desperate prayers and then, when He finally spoke, called you a dog – a derogatory term in that culture and in our own? 

This is definitely sin on the part of Jesus. God would never ignore someone’s plea for their daughter to be freed from demon possession, nor would He call Gentiles dogs. God actually does the exact opposite in Acts 10 when the Spirit speaks explicitly to Peter about welcoming Gentiles. Jesus IS insulting her, breaking what he said in Matthew 5:21-22, “You have heard that it was said to those of old, “You shall not murder; and whoever murders will be liable to judgment.” But I say to you that everyone who is angry with his brother will be liable to judgment; whoever insults his brother will be liable to the council; and whoever says, “You fool!” will be liable to the hell of fire.”  Jesus insulted this woman. There is no way around that. She was desperate and needed help, and Jesus called her a dog. Again, that was not loving. When he told his audience to be perfect as his heavenly Father is perfect, he was talking about himself too, who was being perfected…. And whose words were not always from God. Jesus knew he was not good like God (Matthew 19:17, Mark 10:18, Luke 18:19). He was becoming good and being sanctified – he even says so himself (John 17:19). It IS right to take the bread of the Israelites and give it to the Gentiles. Even in the Old Testament the prophecies concerning God’s Messiah speak to God inviting all nations to know Him, not just Jews. Later when Jesus was more sanctified, he agreed. Certainly, when he was raised from the dead and spoke the Great Commission, he agreed, showing a completely different perspective than the one he gave the woman. He told the disciples to go to all the nations (Matthew 28:18-20). This shows character growth in Jesus. He was being sanctified and learning the Father’s heart for the whole world. He did not inherently have it. God loves the world; God would never call any of His children a “dog”.

Some Christians defending Jesus in this story state that Jesus reacted in this way to teach the disciples a lesson about how it is right to reach out to the Canaanites too, breaking their racial prejudices. Additionally, some say Jesus did this as a way to stretch the Canaanite woman’s faith. Yet Jesus could have taught the disciples this lesson by simply choosing to heal the Canaanite woman’s daughter right away, not ignore her. Further, the Canaanite woman’s faith was already being stretched by her pursuing Jesus and begging him for help. He could have eased her suffering immediately and responded to her with love and healed her daughter. There was no good reason for Jesus to have acted the way he did. Would Jesus have healed the woman’s daughter if she had not persisted in faith? The story is unclear.

C. Finally, Luke 9:37-43 says, “The next day, when they came down from the mountain, a large crowd met him. 38 A man in the crowd called out, “Teacher, I beg you to look at my son, for he is my only child. 39 A spirit seizes him and he suddenly screams; it throws him into convulsions so that he foams at the mouth. It scarcely ever leaves him and is destroying him. 40 I begged your disciples to drive it out, but they could not.”

41 “You unbelieving and perverse generation,” Jesus replied, “how long shall I stay with you and put up with you? Bring your son here.”

42 Even while the boy was coming, the demon threw him to the ground in a convulsion. But Jesus rebuked the impure spirit, healed the boy and gave him back to his father. 43 And they were all amazed at the greatness of God.”

While Jesus did heal the boy, was it loving for him to say to this desperate father, “You unbelieving and perverse generation, how long shall I stay with you and put up with you?” In our context, if any parent with a suffering child approached a pastor for help, and the pastor said something like Jesus did, would we think he was speaking in love or impatience? Why is it unbelieving and perverse for a father to ask Jesus and his disciples to help his possessed son? Would God, our perfectly loving Father, ever say “how long [must I]… put up with you?” 1 Corinthians 13:4 clearly states that “Love is patient.” I think this passage points to Jesus not being perfect in love yet – at least not perfect with his tongue. His words did not demonstrate compassion and love towards this parent, though he still did heal his son.

Therefore, the gospels show at least 3 instances where Jesus did not act in perfect love towards others, demonstrating that he, as Hebrews states 3 times and Luke once, was becoming perfect and sinless, but was not yet.

D. Jesus was baptized for repentance.

Why was Jesus baptized if he was sinless? John’s baptism was a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sin. Mark 1:4 says, “John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.” Luke 3:3 says, “And he went into all the region around the Jordan, preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins…” Jesus would have no reason to get baptized if he was sinless. The whole point of John’s baptism was people got baptized for cleansing from sin and for repentance. The most straightforward reading of the texts of Mark and Luke here is that Jesus was baptized because he was repenting and seeking cleansing from his sin.

In Matthew, John’s baptism was also described as a baptism for repentance. Matthew 11:11 says, “I baptize you with water for repentance….” Now, it is true that John is resistant to baptizing Jesus, as John says he needs to be baptized by Jesus. But Jesus says, “Let it be so now; for it is proper for us in this way to fulfill all righteousness” (Matthew 3:15). But what does not that mean? Why is Jesus saying it is fitting to fulfill all righteousness? Could this simply be agreeing with what Mark and Luke uphold in their gospels – that Jesus needed to be baptized because he needed to repent and be cleansed from his sins? Could this be why Jesus needs John to baptize him to fulfill all righteousness? Why would Jesus be baptized in a baptism of repentance if he did not need to? Is Jesus’ baptism an act or a genuine move of repentance on Jesus’ part?

When all other Scriptures are considered in context regarding whether Jesus was sinless or not, there is only one answer to that question: Jesus’ baptism was a genuine move of repentance. Jesus was on a path of becoming sinless and learning obedience; he was not always sinless.

E. The reaction of Jesus’ friends and family.

If Jesus was actually sinless his whole life, why do his family and friends react the way that they do to his ministry? Matthew 13:54-55 says, “He came to his hometown and began to teach the people in their synagogue, so that they were astounded and said, ‘Where did this man get this wisdom and these deeds of power? Is this not the carpenter’s son? Is not His mother called Mary? And His brothers James, Joses, Simon, and Judas?” Mark 3:20 says, “Then the multitude came together again, so that they could not so much as eat bread. But when His family heard about this [his ministry], they went out to lay hold of Him, for they said, “He is out of His mind.” If Jesus was so set apart from his brothers and sisters growing up – sinless – why would his family and community in his hometown react this way? His family certainly did not seem to think he was that different than any of them. Yet if he was sinless his whole life – never arguing or fighting with his brother, never disobedient to his father or mother – you would think they would not have reacted in such a strong way to his ministry. Maybe they would not have been so surprised at Jesus’ ministry. Yet, his family is. This begs the question: why? From a common sense perspective, Jesus’ friends and family apparently did not believe Jesus was sinless and someone so set apart from them. Surely if he was sinless, this would have stood out to them growing up. Instead, they think he is out of his mind.

This is further evidence Jesus most likely became sinless, he was not always sinless.

6. 2 Samuel 7:4-17 explicitly reveals that Jesus would sin and be disciplined by God.

“But that night the word of the Lord came to Nathan, saying:

5 “Go and tell my servant David, ‘This is what the Lord says: Are you the one to build me a house to dwell in? 6 I have not dwelt in a house from the day I brought the Israelites up out of Egypt to this day. I have been moving from place to place with a tent as my dwelling. 7 Wherever I have moved with all the Israelites, did I ever say to any of their rulers whom I commanded to shepherd my people Israel, “Why have you not built me a house of cedar?”’

8 “Now then, tell my servant David, ‘This is what the Lord Almighty says: I took you from the pasture, from tending the flock, and appointed you ruler over my people Israel. 9 I have been with you wherever you have gone, and I have cut off all your enemies from before you. Now I will make your name great, like the names of the greatest men on earth. 10 And I will provide a place for my people Israel and will plant them so that they can have a home of their own and no longer be disturbed. Wicked people will not oppress them anymore, as they did at the beginning 11 and have done ever since the time I appointed leaders over my people Israel. I will also give you rest from all your enemies.

“‘The Lord declares to you that the Lord himself will establish a house for you: 12 When your days are over and you rest with your ancestors, I will raise up your offspring to succeed you, your own flesh and blood, and I will establish his kingdom. 13 He is the one who will build a house for my Name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever. 14 I will be his father, and he will be my son. When he does wrong, I will punish him with a rod wielded by men, with floggings inflicted by human hands. 15 But my love will never be taken away from him, as I took it away from Saul, whom I removed from before you. 16 Your house and your kingdom will endure forever before me[b]; your throne will be established forever.’”

17 Nathan reported to David all the words of this entire revelation.”

Verses 12-15 are talking about Jesus. He is the only one who the Bible says his kingdom will be established forever. This is clear evidence that Jesus did wrong, and God punished him through men – through a rod and floggings by human hands – this is verbatim what happened to Jesus. He was flogged by humans. As Hebrews says, Jesus was a perfect high priest and made offering for his sin and the sin of the world. Hebrews 7:27 says, “He has no need, like those high priests, to offer sacrifices daily, first for his own sins and then for those of the people, since he did this once for all when he offered up himself.” The author of Hebrews is explicit: Jesus paid for his own sins and the sin of the world. This means he must have had sin, as was already shown and is revealed in this passage in 2 Samuel verse 14. 

What is more, if Nathan is prophesying that when this son of God, Jesus, does wrong he will be punished with floggings, what else could this mean besides Jesus paid the penalty for his sin? God punished Jesus’ sin through floggings. Just like the high priests of Israel, Jesus as our great high priest paid both for his sin and the sin of the people. Jesus’ sacrifice was the ultimate fulfillment of the Day of Atonement as described in Leviticus 16:6-34:

6 “Aaron shall offer the bull as a sin offering for himself and shall make atonement for himself and for his house. 7 Then he shall take the two goats and set them before the Lord at the entrance of the tent of meeting. 8 And Aaron shall cast lots over the two goats, one lot for the Lord and the other lot for Azazel. 9 And Aaron shall present the goat on which the lot fell for the Lord and use it as a sin offering, 10 but the goat on which the lot fell for Azazel shall be presented alive before the Lord to make atonement over it, that it may be sent away into the wilderness to Azazel.

11 “Aaron shall present the bull as a sin offering for himself, and shall make atonement for himself and for his house. He shall kill the bull as a sin offering for himself. 12 And he shall take a censer full of coals of fire from the altar before the Lord, and two handfuls of sweet incense beaten small, and he shall bring it inside the veil 13 and put the incense on the fire before the Lord, that the cloud of the incense may cover the mercy seat that is over the testimony, so that he does not die. 14 And he shall take some of the blood of the bull and sprinkle it with his finger on the front of the mercy seat on the east side, and in front of the mercy seat he shall sprinkle some of the blood with his finger seven times.

15 “Then he shall kill the goat of the sin offering that is for the people and bring its blood inside the veil and do with its blood as he did with the blood of the bull, sprinkling it over the mercy seat and in front of the mercy seat. 16 Thus he shall make atonement for the Holy Place, because of the uncleannesses of the people of Israel and because of their transgressions, all their sins. And so he shall do for the tent of meeting, which dwells with them in the midst of their uncleannesses. 17 No one may be in the tent of meeting from the time he enters to make atonement in the Holy Place until he comes out and has made atonement for himself and for his house and for all the assembly of Israel. 18 Then he shall go out to the altar that is before the Lord and make atonement for it, and shall take some of the blood of the bull and some of the blood of the goat, and put it on the horns of the altar all around. 19 And he shall sprinkle some of the blood on it with his finger seven times, and cleanse it and consecrate it from the uncleannesses of the people of Israel.

20 “And when he has made an end of atoning for the Holy Place and the tent of meeting and the altar, he shall present the live goat. 21 And Aaron shall lay both his hands on the head of the live goat, and confess over it all the iniquities of the people of Israel, and all their transgressions, all their sins. And he shall put them on the head of the goat and send it away into the wilderness by the hand of a man who is in readiness. 22 The goat shall bear all their iniquities on itself to a remote area, and he shall let the goat go free in the wilderness.

23 “Then Aaron shall come into the tent of meeting and shall take off the linen garments that he put on when he went into the Holy Place and shall leave them there. 24 And he shall bathe his body in water in a holy place and put on his garments and come out and offer his burnt offering and the burnt offering of the people and make atonement for himself and for the people. 25 And the fat of the sin offering he shall burn on the altar. 26 And he who lets the goat go to Azazel shall wash his clothes and bathe his body in water, and afterward he may come into the camp. 27 And the bull for the sin offering and the goat for the sin offering, whose blood was brought in to make atonement in the Holy Place, shall be carried outside the camp. Their skin and their flesh and their dung shall be burned up with fire. 28 And he who burns them shall wash his clothes and bathe his body in water, and afterward he may come into the camp.

29 “And it shall be a statute to you forever that in the seventh month, on the tenth day of the month, you shall afflict yourselves and shall do no work, either the native or the stranger who sojourns among you. 30 For on this day shall atonement be made for you to cleanse you. You shall be clean before the Lord from all your sins. 31 It is a Sabbath of solemn rest to you, and you shall afflict yourselves; it is a statute forever. 32 And the priest who is anointed and consecrated as priest in his father's place shall make atonement, wearing the holy linen garments. 33 He shall make atonement for the holy sanctuary, and he shall make atonement for the tent of meeting and for the altar, and he shall make atonement for the priests and for all the people of the assembly. 34 And this shall be a statute forever for you, that atonement may be made for the people of Israel once in the year because of all their sins.” And Aaron did as the Lord commanded Moses.”

The high priest makes an offering not just for the sins of the people but also for himself. Hebrews 7:27 says this is exactly what Jesus does. Again, Hebrews 7:27 reads, “He has no need, like those high priests, to offer sacrifices daily, first for his own sins and then for those of the people, since he did this once for all when he offered up himself.” The author of Hebrews does not say that Jesus only paid for the sins of the people. The author of Hebrews says here that Jesus sacrificed himself both for his own sins and for the people.

What was Jesus’ sin? The gospels show he was not always careful and loving with his words, at least towards the Pharisees, the Canaanite woman, and the man whose only child was possessed. He judged the Pharisees and was harsh back at them instead of being gentle. They were essentially “his enemies”, but he did not love them perfectly. What is more, he was exclusive at times in his ministry and did not invite all people in initially – just the lost sheep of Israel – though this was not God’s intention and heart. People show favoritism, not God (Romans 2:11)– and Jesus did show favoritism for the Jews by ignoring and speaking unlovingly to the Canaanite woman. Jesus became perfect: he became sinless.

Some think this passage is referring to David’s son Solomon, but the passage is clear it is Jesus, not Solomon, as only Jesus’ kingdom is established forever, not Solomon’s. What is more, in verse 12, the prophecy says that this person will come after David dies, but Solomon comes during David’s life. This passage cannot be referring to Solomon. So, the prophecies about the Messiah in the Old Testament included a Messiah that would sin and be disciplined.

Objections: Don’t other passages show that Jesus was sinless?

All the verses about Jesus’ sinlessness point to the time in his life when he offered his life. Other verses, explained above, indicate he “became perfect” by what he suffered and “learned obedience”. His greatest test of obedience was in the Garden of Gethsemane. He was learning obedience. He was growing in character and finally submitted to God’s will – perhaps this was the point when he was purified enough to offer his life and die – he was finally without sin after surrendering all to God – even his very life.

Also, a Biblical understanding of righteousness and sinlessness is needed to properly understand the passages indicating Jesus was sinless. In the Bible, one can still be called righteous and blameless even if the individual had past sin. This is best seen in the life of David, who had past sin but was still considered blameless and righteous. God’s Word shows that God counts as righteous those who have fully repented, not those who have never, ever sinned once. In this section, first I will give a Biblical understanding of righteousness and sinlessness, and then I will address each passage that indicates Jesus was sinless himself.

1.   A Biblical Understanding of Righteousness and Sinlessness

David says in Psalm 18:20-23, “The Lord rewarded me according to my righteousness; According to the cleanness of my hands He has recompensed me.²¹ For I have kept the ways of the Lord, And have not wickedly departed from my God.²² For all His judgments were before me, And I did not put away His statutes from me.²³ I was also blameless ^[a]before Him, And I kept myself from my iniquity.”

Is this true? Has David been blameless before God all his life? Is he actually righteous? How can David, a sinner who sinned terribly, at least in the case of Bathsheba, truthfully say these things? Has he actually kept the ways of the Lord his whole life?

Further, in Psalm 26, David writes, “Vindicate me, Lord,    for I have led a blameless life; I have trusted in the Lord    and have not faltered.”

Is that true? Has David led a blameless life and not faltered? Scripture shows David did falter at times.

Psalm 18 and Psalm 26 show that a godly person, like David, can truthfully make statements indicating sinlessness even while still having past sin, because David is talking truthfully about his current state. David has repented and is now blameless in God’s eyes. If this is true for David, this can also be true for Jesus. When statements about Jesus’ sinlessness are made, this does not mean Jesus was sinless his whole life, just as these statements do not mean David was sinless his whole life. Blameless, sinless statements about David or Jesus refer to their current, sinless state upon repentance. It is important to be consistent in interpreting Scripture. If this is how David’s sin and apparent blamelessness should be considered, Jesus’ sin and apparent blamelessness should be considered the same way. A state of sinlessness, from a biblical perspective, does need to be understood as encompassing a person’s entire life. In the case of Jesus, it cannot be, as there is evidence already given of sin in Jesus’ life.

Ezekiel 18 is also helpful in understanding these concepts. Ezekiel 18 states,

“The word of the Lord came to me: ² “What do you people mean by quoting this proverb about the land of Israel:

“‘The parents eat sour grapes,    and the children’s teeth are set on edge’?

³ “As surely as I live, declares the Sovereign Lord, you will no longer quote this proverb in Israel. ⁴ For everyone belongs to me, the parent as well as the child—both alike belong to me. The one who sins is the one who will die.

⁵ “Suppose there is a righteous man    who does what is just and right.⁶ He does not eat at the mountain shrines    or look to the idols of Israel. He does not defile his neighbor’s wife    or have sexual relations with a woman during her period.⁷ He does not oppress anyone,    but returns what he took in pledge for a loan. He does not commit robbery    but gives his food to the hungry    and provides clothing for the naked.⁸ He does not lend to them at interest    or take a profit from them. He withholds his hand from doing wrong    and judges fairly between two parties.⁹ He follows my decrees    and faithfully keeps my laws. That man is righteous;    he will surely live, declares the Sovereign Lord.”

God counts as righteous the man who lives righteously, though the Bible is clear all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23). “Righteous”, then, does not mean sinless for the entirety of someone’s life in God’s sight.

¹⁰ “Suppose he has a violent son, who sheds blood or does any of these other things^[a] 11 (though the father has done none of them):

“He eats at the mountain shrines. He defiles his neighbor’s wife.¹² He oppresses the poor and needy. He commits robbery. He does not return what he took in pledge. He looks to the idols. He does detestable things.¹³ He lends at interest and takes a profit.

Will such a man live? He will not! Because he has done all these detestable things, he is to be put to death; his blood will be on his own head.

¹⁴ “But suppose this son has a son who sees all the sins his father commits, and though he sees them, he does not do such things:

¹⁵ “He does not eat at the mountain shrines    or look to the idols of Israel. He does not defile his neighbor’s wife.¹⁶ He does not oppress anyone    or require a pledge for a loan. He does not commit robbery    but gives his food to the hungry    and provides clothing for the naked.¹⁷ He withholds his hand from mistreating the poor    and takes no interest or profit from them. He keeps my laws and follows my decrees.

He will not die for his father’s sin; he will surely live. ¹⁸ But his father will die for his own sin, because he practiced extortion, robbed his brother and did what was wrong among his people.

¹⁹ “Yet you ask, ‘Why does the son not share the guilt of his father?’ Since the son has done what is just and right and has been careful to keep all my decrees, he will surely live. ²⁰ The one who sins is the one who will die. The child will not share the guilt of the parent, nor will the parent share the guilt of the child. The righteousness of the righteous will be credited to them, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against them.

²¹ “But if a wicked person turns away from all the sins they have committed and keeps all my decrees and does what is just and right, that person will surely live; they will not die. ²² None of the offenses they have committed will be remembered against them. Because of the righteous things they have done, they will live. ²³ Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? declares the Sovereign Lord. Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their ways and live?”

Verses 20-22 are interesting as God says he will forget the unrighteous things people have done. Instead, God will remember the righteous things they have done, and they will live. This is God’s heart posture towards humanity. God highly values repentance, to the point of forgetting past sins when a person repents.

²⁴ “But if a righteous person turns from their righteousness and commits sin and does the same detestable things the wicked person does, will they live? None of the righteous things that person has done will be remembered. Because of the unfaithfulness they are guilty of and because of the sins they have committed, they will die.

²⁵ “Yet you say, ‘The way of the Lord is not just.’ Hear, you Israelites: Is my way unjust? Is it not your ways that are unjust? ²⁶ If a righteous person turns from their righteousness and commits sin, they will die for it; because of the sin they have committed they will die. ²⁷ But if a wicked person turns away from the wickedness they have committed and does what is just and right, they will save their life. ²⁸ Because they consider all the offenses they have committed and turn away from them, that person will surely live; they will not die. ²⁹ Yet the Israelites say, ‘The way of the Lord is not just.’ Are my ways unjust, people of Israel? Is it not your ways that are unjust?

³⁰ “Therefore, you Israelites, I will judge each of you according to your own ways, declares the Sovereign Lord. Repent! Turn away from all your offenses; then sin will not be your downfall. ³¹ Rid yourselves of all the offenses you have committed, and get a new heart and a new spirit. Why will you die, people of Israel? ³² For I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares the Sovereign Lord. Repent and live!”

So, in summary, God sees as fully righteous the one who fully repents and does the right thing – to the point that their sin will be remembered no more by God. The truth of Ezekiel 18 is certainly seen in the life of David, as he describes himself as blameless in the Psalms though he sinned greatly. However, David repented, and God then, according to Ezekiel 18, counts David as righteous. From this Old Testament background of sin, we can now examine what the New Testament writers really meant when they called Jesus sinless.

2.   Was Jesus sinless?

The following passages are used to prove that Jesus was always sinless. But is that what Scripture is really saying, especially given the other passages shared regarding Jesus’s sin? Context is helpful in determining what Scripture is actually saying given each verse.

A.     Romans 5:19 “For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous.”

This passage compares Jesus’ obedience with Adam’s disobedience. This passage does not mean Jesus was always sinless and obedient. It cannot mean that as Hebrews 5:8 says, “Although he was a son, he learned obedience through what he suffered.” If Jesus learned obedience, this means he did not always know obedience: he was not always obedient. But given that Adam’s disobedience was one initial act of eating the forbidden fruit, similarly, Paul could be pointing to another singular act of righteousness: that of Christ laying down his life for the world. Jesus was obedient to the Father in the Garden and laid his life down for the world – this was the obedience that resulted in many being made righteous. So, in context, this is not about a whole life of perfect obedience – this is about a man who became sanctified and obeyed God even to giving his life.

B.   “For we do not have a high priest who is unable to empathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are—yet he did not sin.”  Hebrews 4:15

The way this verse is translated makes it sound like Jesus was tempted in every way, and when he was tempted, he never gave into sin. However, this is not what the actual Greek says. The direct Greek translation says, according to Strong’s Greek Concordance, “Not for have we a high priest not being able to sympathize with the weaknesses of us [one] having been tempted however in all things by the same way without sin.” Read one way, one could understand this verse as saying that Jesus, as high priest, is presently without sin as the high priest, not that when he was tempted he never sinned. This verse is describing the current state of Jesus. Jesus is a high priest who can sympathize with the weaknesses of humanity, as he was tempted in all things by the same way. This high priest also is currently without sin. The “without sin” describes the current state of Jesus as high priest, not the state of him when he was tempted in every way. The initial translation of Hebrews 4:15 adds words ("yet") and punctuation (the original Greek had no punctuation) to the text to make it sound like Jesus never succumbed to temptation when tempted.

Ultimately, the context of this verse reveals what Hebrews 4:15 actually means and if it could mean that Jesus was tempted in all ways throughout his life and never sinned. Hebrew 5:8 provides this context, which is just several verses later, “Son though he ways, he learned obedience from what he suffered and, once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him and was designated by God to be high priest in the order of Melchizedek.” The author of Hebrews, based on this verse he wrote just several verses after Hebrews 4:15, does not believe that Jesus was sinless his whole life. Rather, he became perfect and learned obedience. He was not even high priest his whole life. Jesus became high priest after he was made perfect. This is the key to understanding Hebrews 4:15, as Jesus was high priest after being made perfect and sinless. This was the time when he was “without sin” (Hebrews 4:15) – certainly not before, if he was learning obedience and becoming perfect – becoming sinless.

So, as high priest, Jesus was without sin (Hebrews 4:15). But he was not always high priest. Again, Hebrews 5:8 says, “Son though he was, he learned obedience from what he suffered 9 and, once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him 10 and was designated by God to be high priest in the order of Melchizedek.” Once he was made perfect, he was designated by God to be high priest. Consider Christ’s last great test of obedience: in the Garden of Gethsemane he had to say “yes” to God to offer his life. There was no more obedience to learn after that: Jesus paid the ultimate price in offering his life. Perhaps at this point, right before his arrest, Jesus had become perfect. He was now fully purified and God designated him as high priest. As high priest, Jesus was completely sinless. In his offering of his life he did not sin. Before he was fully sanctified and became our high priest, he did sin, as the passages explained previously demonstrate.

Another way to think about the above paragraph: Jesus was tempted, throughout his life, in every way, just as we are…. But he did not sin as high priest. He obediently offered his life for the sin of the world – and his own sin, as previously explained. This does not mean he never, ever sinned in his entire life. This verse does not say that. Other Scriptures, as already explained, affirms that. 

Hebrew 4:15, in isolation, out of context, and without looking at the original Greek, may lead one to conclude that Jesus never sinned his entire life. However, again, this verse does not explicitly state that, and in the context of the entire Bible – even in the context of only the book of Hebrews as the author of Hebrews states 3 times that Jesus became perfect – it is evident that is not what this verse is communicating. As high priest, Jesus was “without sin” (Hebrews 4:15) - but he became our high priest once he was made perfect.

The verses about Jesus being sinless should not be understood in isolation but in the context of all other Scriptures that speak to this topic. Certainly, Jesus became sinless. No verse in the Bible explicitly states that Jesus was sinless his entire life, and many verses, as already cited, witness to the opposite. From the time of Jesus becoming perfect, he became our high priest and never fell into sin from that point on. He could have when he came back to earth and lived among the people for 40 days – but he did not. At that point he was “without sin” (Hebrews 4:15) as high priest – but not before, as multiple other passages attest to, in the book of Hebrews and throughout the New Testament.

C.   “To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps. ‘He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth.’ When they hurled their insults at him, he did not retaliate; when he suffered, he made no threats. Instead, he entrusted himself to him who judges justly.” 1 Peter 2:22

In context, this is specifically talking about Jesus’ arrest and crucifixion, which was the time of his life when insults were hurled at him and when he suffered, not making any threats – not that he lived a life of sinlessness completely. That could not be the case given the witness of other Scriptures.

D. “Can any of you prove me guilty of sin? If I am telling the truth, why don’t you believe me?” John 8:46

Jesus could simply be saying he is not sinning right now and he is telling the truth – this does not need to be interpreted that he has never sinned in his entire life. In context, considering the whole of Scripture, this verse should not be understood as meaning he never sinned.

E.    “For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.” 2 Corinthians 5:21

Jesus had no sin - knew no sin - when he died for us – when he was made “to be sin”. He was completely purified at that point. He did not “know” it – he had become purified. This cannot mean he never in his life “knew sin” as that would contradict other passages, as explained previously. Jesus certainly “knew no sin” regarding why he was crucified (for claiming to be the Son of God), which is possibly what Paul is specifically referring to. He was the Son of God and had done nothing deserving of death.

Also, when the witness of the Old Testament is considered in examining this Scripture, this certainly does not need to mean Jesus never sinned his whole life. Ezekiel 18 is clear in God’s eyes God does not even remember the sin of someone who has repented. Another way of saying that God does not know a person’s sin. Similarly here, Christ does not “know sin”, perhaps in a similar way that David can say he is righteous, has cleanliness of hands, is blameless, and has not faltered in the Psalms – though David certainly did sin in the past. Jesus, in offering his life, was a fully repentant, purified person – of course he did not “know sin” and God did not “know” his sin either per Ezekiel 18. But this does not mean Jesus never sinned in his life, as multiple other passages attest to. Jesus was sanctified and perfected to reach the moment of his death in offering himself without sin for the sin of the world.

F. “But you know that he appeared so that he might take away our sins. And in him is no sin.” 1 John 3:5

Presently, in him is no sin because he became purified. Jesus himself said he was sanctifying himself (John 17:19). This verse does not say Jesus never ever had sin, just that currently he does not.

G. “But with the precious blood of Christ, a lamb without blemish or defect.” 1 Peter 1:19

When he gave his life, he was blameless and without defect – but he became blameless and without defect, as the book of Hebrews states 3 times: Jesus became perfect. Again, as the Psalms witness to, David called himself blameless, even though he has sinned. This was true of Jesus too, as the Scriptures taken together as a whole testify to.

How was Jesus able to become sinless? Did Jesus have an advantage?

Hebrews 2:14-18 reveals Jesus was made like us in every respect,

14 "Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same things, that through death he might destroy the one who has the power of death, that is, the devil, 15 and deliver all those who through fear of death were subject to lifelong slavery. 16 For surely it is not angels that he helps, but he helps the offspring of Abraham. 17 Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. 18 For because he himself has suffered when tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.”

Scripture reveals, as explained above, that Jesus still needed to learn obedience as well as overcome sin that he wrestled with and become pure. Jesus had no advantage in accomplishing this besides the Holy Spirit and a heart desiring to obey God fully in everything. Additionally, verse 17 reveals that Jesus needed to become a merciful, faithful, sinless high priest (as discussed previously), he was not always that way.

 The Reality of Temptation

Jesus still had to fight sin. If he did not have to genuinely fight sin like all of humanity, why was being tempted such a battle and struggle and something that brought him suffering? Hebrews 2:18 says, “Because he himself suffered when he was tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.” James is clear that God cannot be tempted, so this is good evidence that Jesus is not God. But why did Jesus suffer when he was tempted? Could it have been because he had the desire to do the right thing, and wanted to obey God, but he wrestled with sin, trying to master it? He suffered until he overcame his temptation.

Temptation comes because of the sin and evil desires that war against our souls. For example, I used to struggle with envy towards one of my good friends because she had exactly what I wanted. I suffered in being tempted to envy her. I did not want to. I wanted to do the right thing. But the envy was there. However, now, God has changed my heart, and I am fully content in Him. I no longer envy or “suffer” with that temptation because God has sanctified me. I think a fully sanctified person is like God, and is not tempted by evil, nor would that person suffer in being tempted. Suffering in temptation is only possible if you are not fully perfected in God. This is because it is not possible to be tempted by something that you do not desire. It becomes a nonissue – and as James 1:14 says, the root of temptation is being lured and enticed by our desires. If Jesus was truly “sinless” his whole life, why would he suffer when tempted? Would not temptations be a non-issue for a sinless, fully perfected person?

For example, I am not tempted to have casual sex as I know that would be destructive for me and others. I am not tempted to envy others anymore because I trust God has an amazing plan for me. Envy is just no longer a temptation because God has sanctified me. These two sins are not temptations for me, nor do I experience any sort of suffering by not envying or having casual sex. Temptation does not exist in areas where God has sanctified someone. I think this is part of why God cannot be tempted by evil, and we can. Jesus was able to be tempted and suffered in it because he was not perfect yet like God is.

Jesus battled the sin that waged war on his soul – this is why he suffered when tempted – he struggled with sin. Again: if Jesus was sinless, why would temptation be suffering for him? Suffering only exists with temptations if sin and sinful desire are present. Otherwise, temptation is not hard, it is easy. To give another example, being tempted to gossip is only “suffering” if part of you wants to gossip. If you don’t want to gossip at all, there is 0 temptation as the desire is not there. Perfection, sinlessness, and the inability to be tempted go together. Again, I think one reason God cannot be tempted is because He has no desire towards sin in any way and is completely perfect.

So, Jesus became sinless and died for his sin and the world’s sin. (I think) this is the path that we all must take: becoming sinless through obedient sacrifice to God. This is why Jesus is the Way, the Truth, and the Life – we all must pick up our cross and follow him – and live as he did, defeat sin, pick up our own cross, and become sinless. There is no shortcut. We do not magically inherit the divine nature. God must discipline us and teach us how – we must be sanctified and disciplined, working out our own salvation (Philippians 2:12).

Jesus had no advantage in accomplishing what he did and was made like other humans in every respect as Hebrews says. He is the firstborn among many brothers and sisters.

This means that Jesus overcame sin fully and that this is indeed possible for children of God to do. Humanity can only have incredible respect for Jesus. He overcame all his sin, with God’s help (as he said he could do nothing apart from the Father, John 5:19), and died for not only his sin but everyone’s so all could be reconciled with God (Hebrews 7:27). Jesus deserves great honor. The only response to this revelation is incredible respect for Jesus and a deep desire to follow him. As 1 John 2:6 says, “Whoever says, ‘I abide in him’, must walk just as he walked.” Jesus has shown us the Way: complete surrender and obedience to God and a life lived as a loving sacrifice for others.

Additional Objection: if Christ was not sinless his whole life, how he could he pay for the sins of the world?

The Bible never says Christ had to be sinless his whole life to pay for the sins of the world. He perfected himself, and fully learned obedience, even to the point of offering his life. From this point, he was sinless, fully purified, and a pure sacrifice without blemish. Christ died at the right time. There is a reason he did not sacrifice himself at 25. He was not ready. He sanctified himself (John 17:19) and gave his life.

Also, Leviticus talks about how animals cannot be sacrificed if they have a “blemish” such as an illness or broken bone. Presumably, if they healed they could be a sacrifice. Similarly, Jesus came to offer his life as a sin offering though he still needed to sanctify himself (John 17:19) and become perfected in order to offer his life as pure lamb. Given that “sin” is even described in Scripture at times as a disease metaphorically (Jeremiah 17:9), there is nothing in Scripture that would nullify Jesus’ sacrifice given that he became sinless. What is more, given that this is exactly what Scripture describes happened, as explained above, we can have great confidence that Jesus’ sacrifice, though he sanctified himself first, was fully sufficient to atone for sin.

Conclusion

Jesus was sanctified by the Father. He sanctified himself. He was made perfect. He learned obedience. He suffered with temptation. These are all indicators that he became sinless; he was not always sinless. Christians use a double standard when we read the Bible. For us, when we are sanctified, made perfect, suffer from temptation, and learn obedience, it is because we have sin and are being purified. But for Jesus, it means something else.

All the passages referring to Jesus’ sinlessness refer to him being sinless specifically when he was operating as a high priest, being arrested and laying down his life for us – that is when he had no sin. Not before - God was sanctifying him – because He loved Jesus, and also because he needed to be sanctified to offer his life. If this is not true, how do the passages about Jesus being sanctified, perfected, learning obedience, and him explicitly saying only God is good make sense – not to mention the handful of stories in the gospels that point to Jesus having sin? If Jesus was sinless his whole life, he would also be good in addition to God. Again, a few passages in the gospels that show a lack of love on Jesus’ part would also not make sense if he was supposedly sinless his whole life.

Further, Hebrews 5:2 reveals that Jesus had to sacrifice for his own sins and the sins of others. Hebrews 7:27 reveals that Jesus offered himself for the sin of the world AND his sin too, so Jesus must have sinned.  2 Samuel 7 explicitly reveals this as well. Hebrews 7:28 says Jesus was made perfect forever, indicating that he was not always perfect.

As one commentator states in his commentary on Mark’s gospel (https://brokenoracles.com/2019/01/18/is-jesus-divine-in-mark/) :

“Again, if Jesus is sinless, why does he say to the rich man “Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone” (Mark 10:17-18)? Why would a sinless Jesus deny that the word “good” applies to him? Jesus denies that he is good, along with everyone else (except God). It is impossible to conceive of sinlessness lacking goodness. Hence, Jesus’ response to the rich man identifies him as one who shares the common sinful lot of humanity.

When all this is put together, a cohesive picture emerges. Jesus is not “good,” just like everyone else, and needs to repent. He submits to the baptism of John (which is defined as a baptism of repentance unto forgiveness). He receives forgiveness through John’s rite, is chosen by God to become God’s son and Messiah, and then becomes a conduit of divine forgiveness for others (2:5-10). One certainly need not be sinless to preach forgiveness. Indeed, it is arguable that someone can better offer that which he has first received himself.

One implication of the demand to “Follow me!” (Mark 1:17, 2:14, 8:34, 10:21), or to “take up one’s cross” (Mark 8:34), is that Jesus’ fidelity to God provides an example of the sort of obedience to God that the disciples are to aspire to. Just as Jesus repents from sin, and struggles to maintain fidelity, so must his follower likewise do.  If Jesus is sinless in Mark, then the example he leaves is almost a mockery. He “shows” others how to overcome sin, which is something he never had to deal with within himself. Hence, a Jesus who repents, and overcomes sin provides a more meaningful example.”

I agree. And a Jesus who repents and overcomes sin is the true Jesus of the Bible, not the idolatrous picture Christendom paints of a God-man who never sinned and that we should worship as God – and are often led to worship over God Himself. The true Jesus also reveals the true gospel: Christians are to walk just as Jesus walked (1 John 2:6). We are all called to become exactly like Christ through obedience and suffering. There is no short cut. If Jesus is a God-man, humanity is let off the hook – we don’t really have to be completely like Jesus. How could we? He’s God! But if Jesus is a man like us: we are inspired, challenged, and empowered to become just like he was, knowing we actually can be like him by God’s grace and our obedience. As 1 John 2:6 says, "...whoever says he abides in him ought to walk in the same way in which he walked."