Is Jesus God? Part 7: Scripture in Context- John

This post examines the gospel of John, and Part 8 examines 1 John and Revelation. These books were all written by the same author: John, so consider all of them together in thinking about if John believed that Jesus was God. Many claim that John’s gospel, John, clearly shows that Jesus was God, more than any of the other gospels or books in the Bible. If John really believed Jesus was God, that belief would be consistent throughout the book of John, 1 John, and Revelation.

John

1.     John 1:1-4

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. In him was life, and the life was the light of men.”

John 1:14

“And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.” 

If Jesus isn’t God, why does John 1 say the “Word became flesh”, i.e. Jesus, and “the Word was God”? 

 If Jesus isn’t God, how were all things made through him and without him nothing was made?

First, when these verses are read in context, we know what John’s purpose for writing his gospel was: not to prove that Jesus is God, which many people have asserted. He stated in John 20:31, “…these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.” This would have been a natural and easy place for John to write that he was writing so people would believe that Jesus is God – but that is not what he said (“John 1:1 the Jewish mind vs. the translators’ bias part 1”, 2023). Son of God does not mean Jesus is God – this meant Jesus was the Messiah and King of Israel. Obviously, this title does not mean Jesus is God as every male Christian after him is also called son of God, and they are not God.

A close look at the Greek grammar in these verses is also helpful. “Word” is capitalized by translators to show that the Word refers to a person, but this is not capitalized in the original Greek. The Greek language at the time consisted of all capital letters. In the context of these verses, nothing suggests that “Word” would be a proper noun. Some Bible translations translate “word” without the capital (“John 1:1 the Jewish mind vs. the translators’ bias part 1”, 2023).

“Word”, which most Christians believe to be Jesus, is “logos” in the Greek and has many meanings, all of which refer in some way to logic/reason (wisdom) or speech/word. This word is in the New Testament over 300 times and is never defined as a person or being of any kind, yet Trinitarian translators choose to define it as such in English translations of John 1:1-3. Notably, John 1:1 does not say, “In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was God,” though many people read it that way (“John 1:1 the Jewish mind vs. the translators’ bias part 1”, 2023).

Another way of reading these verses is that God’s plan, the “word”, came to life in the person of Jesus. Did the early Church see Jesus as having pre-existed with God as the Word? Or did they believe he was God’s purpose and plan made flesh? Believing Jesus was God’s purpose and plan made flesh fits with Revelation 19:13, which describes Jesus’ return. “He [Jesus] is clothed with a robe dipped in blood, and his name is called the Word of God.” Notably, his name is not “God” or “God the Word”, but “The Word of God”, the embodiment of God’s purpose, plan, and wisdom for humanity (“John 1:1 the Jewish mind vs. the translators’ bias part 1”, 2023).

Another grammar point to consider is “He” and “Him”, as “he” and “him are used in Bible translations to refer to the “Word”. Nouns in Greek have gender. “Word”, “logos” in Greek, has a male gender with masculine pronouns. But when translated to English, the natural translation is “it was in the beginning with God”, not “he”, because “word” – logos – in English does not mean person but word. This is shown in Spanish where “el libro” means “the book” but in English, “book” is “it”, not “him” (“John 1:1 the Jewish mind vs. the translators’ bias part 2”, 2023). Could Trinitarian translators have translated “logos” as “he”, biased in their thinking that Jesus is God?

If other parts of the Bible are examined, translators always use “it” to translate “logos”, not “he” (examples include Matthew 13:20, Luke 11:28, 1 Corinthians 1:18). Yet in this one case, where the divinity of Jesus could be argued for, “logos” gets the translation as a capital “He”, not “it”. This was not always the case historically. Before the King James Bible version in 1611, eight of the major translations of the Bible translated “Logos” in John 1 as “it”, not “he”. Even among Trinitarians, there is historical evidence of translating John 1:1-4 differently in a way that does not show Jesus is God (“John 1:1 the Jewish mind vs. the translators’ bias part 2”, 2023).

Finally, the translation reads that the “Word was God”, which many take as proof that Jesus must be God, as Jesus is said to be the “Word”. God in Greek is “theos”, and it is in the New Testament over 1300 times, almost always in reference to Yahweh but not always. 2 Corinthians 4:4, for example, describes Satan as the “god of this world” using “theos”. Given that the Greek was written in all capital letters and what “God/god” was being referred to might be confusing, the New Testament writers added a definite article “the”, “ho” in Greek, whenever the Lord God, Yahweh, was being referred to. “Ho theos” in the New Testament refers to Yahweh (Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance confirms this) (“John 1:1 the Jewish mind vs. the translators’ bias part 2”, 2023).

So, when John 1:1 says “The Word was with God”, “God” is read as “ho theos” in the Greek –  so, referring to Yahweh. But when the next part of the verse reads “the Word was God (theos)”, the definite article is not used, so instead of referring to Yahweh, “God” here is more descriptive, referring to something that is divine – like God, but not identical to God. One way this could be translated is: “the Word was with God and the Word was god-like” (“John 1:1 the Jewish mind vs. the translators’ bias part 2”, 2023).

Many Trinitarians actually agree with that interpretation of John 1:1, including William Barclay, F.F. Bruce, Ray Faircloth, The New American Bible Revised Edition, and the Expositor’s Greek Testament. These Trinitarian sources maintain that when John 1:1 states that the “Word was God”, “theos” (God) should be seen as an adjective – something god-like - not Yahweh God (“John 1:1 the Jewish mind vs. the translators’ bias part 2”, 2023).

Therefore, another proposed translation of John 1:1-4 is “In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and what God was, the word was. All things were made through it, and without it was not anything made that has been made. In it was life and the life was the light of mankind.” This translation, which is more accurate given the Greek and the Biblical context, does not show in any way that Jesus is God (“John 1:1 the Jewish mind vs. the translators’ bias part 2”, 2023).

From that prologue, John 1:14 says, “And the word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.” In other words: “And God’s plan and purpose became flesh and dwelt among us in the person of Jesus.”

John 1 is not proof of Jesus’ deity. Only by forcing an interpretation of the “Word” being a person, an interpretation that is never used in the Bible for “Word/logos”, though it is used over 300 times in the New Testament, can such an interpretation be proposed. The rest of John shows what John thinks about who Jesus is and who Jesus himself thinks he is: the Son of God, not God Himself.

2.     John 1:18

[Some translations]: “No one has ever seen God, the only [begotten] God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known.” 

If Jesus isn’t God, why does John 1:18 say he is “the only God”?

Some translations, like the King James Version, read “only Son” instead of “only God”, so this is not the only translation option. Some Christians think the original text said "only God" and some think it said "only Son", as there are ancient manuscripts of both. Which manuscripts are the original? All the manuscripts reading "only God" are from Alexandria, Egypt, in the 2nd century. During this time period and in Alexandria, a debate was raging as to whether Jesus was God or not. Manuscripts may have been changed then to lend evidence for Jesus being God (Common Verses, 2010).

Context is helpful in answering this question. Which translation makes the most sense given the context of the book of John? Particularly given that Jesus calls God the Father “the only God” in John 5:33 and John 17:3? Who is the “only God” – Jesus or God the Father? What does Jesus think given John 17:3 when he calls God “the only God”? In context, I think the correct translation is “only Son”, and “only God” is a mistranslation. Even many Church fathers like Irenaeus, Clement, and Tertullian, who was credited with first penning "Trinity", quoted this verse using “Son” not “God”, believing that to be the original writing of John (Common Verses, 2010).

Additionally, the phrase “only begotten God” is nowhere else in Scripture, though “only begotten Son” is used three other times by John (John 3:16, 18, 1 John 4:9). In context, again, “only begotten Son” seems to be the better translation. Also, John 1:17, the verse before it, says that “no one has ever seen God”. If verse 18 is saying Jesus is God, this would be contradictory because Jesus was, obviously, seeable (Common Verses, 2010).

Finally, even if the original text from John said “God”, this does not prove Jesus is God, as God was sometimes used in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek to refer to men who had divine authority, even if they were not actually God (for example, in Hebrews 1:8, Jesus is called "God", addressed later). Moses was even referred to by God as “god” (Exodus 7:1) (Common Verses, 2010) .

3.     John 1:29 ^“The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, “Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!”

Jesus is called the “Lamb of God”, so he is not God Himself. He is God’s Lamb.

4.     John 1:34

^“I have seen and I testify that this is God’s Chosen One.”

Jesus is called the “God’s Chosen One”, so he is not God Himself.

5.     John 2:19

“Jesus answered them, ‘Destroy this temple and in three days I will raise it up.’”

If Jesus isn’t God, how is he able to raise himself from the dead?

Other verses clearly state that the Father raised Jesus.  But, Jesus, being filled with God, did have the power to lay down his life and take it up again. Does this need to mean he is God? In our resurrection bodies, perhaps we could do that as well. Other people besides Jesus raise the dead. Paul did in the book of Acts. Elisha did in the Old Testament. Perhaps God could give Jesus the power to take up his life again without Jesus himself being God. 

(Common Verses, 2010)

6.     John 3:2

“He came to Jesus at night and said, “Rabbi, we know that you are a teacher who has come from God. For no one could perform the signs you are doing if God were not with him.””

Jesus is “from God”. He confirms this later himself, though this is from the words of Nicodemus. If he is “from God”, he cannot be God Himself. This certainly shows that Nicodemus did not believe Jesus was claiming to be God if he considered Jesus as a man from God who God was with.

7.     John 3:16

^“For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.”

Perhaps the most famous verse in Christendom! God loved the world, so He gave His only Son – Jesus is not God. He was given by God and sent by God to the world.

8.     John 3:33-36

^“Whoever has accepted it has certified that God is truthful. ³⁴ For the one whom God has sent speaks the words of God, for God gives the Spirit without limit. ³⁵ The Father loves the Son and has placed everything in his hands. ³⁶ Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God’s wrath remains on them.”

Jesus is sent by God and utters the word of God. Why? Because “God gives the Spirit without limit”. So, Jesus is speaking not because he inherently has the words of God inside of himself. He is speaking because he is filled with the Spirit, similar to how Christians are later filled with the Spirit and speak the words of God.

The Father loves the Son and has given all things into his hand. If Jesus is sent by God, he is not God Himself.  They are distinct. If the Father God has given all things into the Son’s hands, the Son was never God, because he would have had everything in his hand already.

9.     John 4:21-24

“Jesus said to her, ‘Woman, believe me, the hour is coming when neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem will you worship the Father. You worship what you do not know; we worship what we know, for salvation is from the Jews. But the hour is coming, and is now here, when the true worshippers will worship the Father in spirit and truth, for the Father is seeking each people to worship him. God is spirit, and those who worship him must worship in spirit and truth.”

If Jesus is God, why does he worship God the Father i.e., “we [Jesus includes himself] worship what we know”?

God by definition is the one worshipped, not the worshipper. Jesus worships God, so this means he is not God Himself. Further, God (the Father) never worships the Son in the Bible, so this is another difference between God and Jesus.

Luke 24:38-43 gives insight that Jesus, in comparison to the God Jesus describes in John 4, is not a spirit:

“And he [Jesus] said to them, ‘Why are you troubled, and why do doubts arise in your hearts? See my hands and feet, that it is I myself. Touch me, and see. For a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see I have.’ And when he had said this, he showed them his hands and feet. And while they still disbelieved for joy and were marveling, he said to them, ‘Have you anything to eat?’ They gave him a piece of broiled fish, and he took it and ate before them.”

If Jesus is God, and God is spirit according to Jesus, why does he say to the disciples that he is not a spirit when he rises from the dead? If Jesus both said that God is Spirit in John 4, and he is not spirit in Luke 24, how could he possibly think he is God?

God does not lie, so everything in His Word is true. Jesus does not lie. Jesus says that “God is spirit,” and he also says that he is not spirit but has flesh and bones. Jesus cannot be God because God is spirit, and Jesus is a man and has flesh and bones. As cited earlier (Hosea 11:9), God is not a man, and God does not change (Malachi 3:6).

10.  John 5:19

“So Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father does, that the Son does likewise.”

John 14:10-11

“Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works. Believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me, or else believe on account of the works themselves.”

Acts 17:24-25, 29-31 gives witness to God's inherent autonomy and independence:

“The God who made the world and everything in it, being Lord of heaven and earth, does not live in temples made by man, nor is he served by human hands, as though he needed anything, since he himself gave to all mankind life and breath and everything… Being then God’s offspring, we ought not to think the divine being is like gold or silver or stone, an image formed by the art and imagination of man. The times of ignorance God overlooked, but now he commands all people everywhere to repent, because has fixed a day on which he will judge the world in righteousness by a man whom he has appointed; and of this has given assurance to all by raising him from the dead.” 

If Jesus is God, and therefore co-equal with God, why can he do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing?

Given that Jesus can do nothing of his own accord, it seems he cannot be God. God is fully independent and can do anything that does not contradict who He is.

If Jesus is God, why is he dependent on the Father, as God, according to Acts 17, does not need anything?

Jesus is fully dependent on the Father, which suggests that he is not God as God does not need anything.

If Jesus is God, why does he say that the Father is the source of the works he does, “the Father who dwells in me does his works”, when God says in Acts 17 he is not dependent on another?

Given that the Father is the source of the works Jesus does, this suggests that Jesus is not God as God is not dependent on another.

If Jesus is God, why are God and Jesus distinct in Acts 17:24-45, 29-31?

The plainest reading of the text is that God and Jesus are two distinct persons, and therefore it seems Jesus is not God.

If Jesus is God, why is Jesus’ presented in Acts 17 as God’s instrument and appointee to judge the world, the one who he raised from the dead, not God Himself?

God appointed the man Jesus to judge the world. God does not need to be appointed to judge, but Jesus is – by God. This seems to show that Jesus himself is not God.

If Jesus is God, why does Paul say he is a man appointed by God, particularly since in John 4 Jesus defines God as spirit, not flesh and bones, and God Himself says He is not a man or a son of man, one of Jesus’ main titles (Numbers 23:19)?

The additional evidence that Jesus is a man, not spirit, points to Jesus being a sinless man filled with God’s Spirit who is distinct from God but used by God to fulfill His purposes.

11.  John 5:16-32

“And this was why the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing these things on the Sabbath [healing people]. But Jesus answered them, ‘My Father is working until now, and I am working.’ This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God. So Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father does, that the Son does likewise. For the Father loves the Son and shows him all that he himself is doing. And greater works than these will he show him, so that you may marvel. For as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, so also the Son gives life to whom he will. For the Father judges no one, but has given all judgment to the Son, that all may honor the Son, as they honor the Father. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him. Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life. Truly, truly, I say to you, an hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live. For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself. And he has given him authority to execute judgment, because he is the Son of Man. Do not marvel at this, for an hour is coming when all who are in the tombs will hear his voice and come out, those who have done good to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil to the resurrection of judgment. I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just, because I seek not my own will but the one who sent me. If I alone bear witness about myself, my testimony is not true. There is another who bears witness about me, and I know that the testimony he bears about me is true.”

If Jesus is God, why did he say he can do nothing of his own accord in response to those who thought he was making himself equal with God?

The verse describing Jesus as “making himself equal with God” has been used to prove that Jesus and God are co-equal as the Trinity doctrine states. Consider Jesus’ response to this accusation: instead of affirming his own equality with God, Jesus points out that he can do nothing of his own accord. While Jesus has a close relationship with God and calls him “Father”, Jesus does not think he is God, as he knows he is dependent on God for everything. The type of equality shared by God the Father and Jesus is certainly not one resembling a “peer” equality. Jesus, as God’s Son, is fully submitted and dependent on the Father as his God in a way that is not reciprocal.

If Jesus is God, why did the Father need to give him all judgment – why did he not inherently have the role of judging?

Jesus is not God, because God is inherently the judge as God – God would not need to be given the role of judging.

If Jesus is God, why did God “grant” the Son to have life in himself?

Jesus is not God, because he is dependent on God to have life in himself. Further, Jesus does not think he is God because he recognizes that.

If Jesus is God, why is the Father the source of life Jesus needs?

Jesus is not God because God needs no source but Himself.  No Bible verses indicate that the Father’s source is the Son. This is a one-way relationship in terms of the ability to live.

If Jesus is God, why would his witness alone not be enough to prove his testimony is true? Why did he also need the witness of the Father?

Jesus is not God. Throughout the Old Testament, for example, when God spoke, no further witnesses were needed. Yahweh spoke, and the words were true. Jesus needing God as his witness points to his voice alone not being enough. God’s voice, however, is always enough on its own. God alone can bear witness to Himself alone.

12. John 6:35

“Jesus said to them, ‘I am the bread of life; whoever comes to me shall not hunger, and whoever believes in me shall never thirst.’” 

John 15:1-2 is a similar passage, so I will address both of these together. John 15:1-2 says, “I [Jesus] am the true vine, and my Father is the vinedresser. Every branch in me that does not bear fruit he takes away, and every branch that does bear fruit he prunes, that it may bear more fruit.”

First, Jesus is speaking metaphorically, so these passages should not be taken literally. I think these passages are communicating the same basic idea about who Jesus is: Jesus came to reconcile the world back to God, so that whoever believes in Jesus will not hunger or thirst and also will bear much fruit. Why? Because anyone who believes in Jesus will get God – a relationship with the Father and the fullness of the Holy Spirit.  So of course that person will never thirst – not because Jesus himself quenches anyone’s hunger or thirst, but because God does, and Jesus made a way for people to have access to God. In terms of the fruit aspect, of course anyone who wants to be used in God’s kingdom needs to put their faith in Jesus, trust him, and obey God as he did (so, in other words, stay “in Jesus”). In doing this, individuals receive the Holy Spirit and naturally will bear much fruit because of their connection and relationship to God, which Jesus enabled by his sacrifice on the cross. Jesus is not the one who ensures people produce fruit.

Jesus is not God. 1 Corinthians 3:5-7 says, “What then is Apollos? What is Paul? Servants through whom you believed, as the Lord assigned to each. 6 I planted, Apollos watered, but God gave the growth. 7 So neither he who plants nor he who waters is anything, but only God who gives the growth.” God is the one who gives the growth and the fruit. Jesus could do nothing apart from the Father (John 5:19).

John 15:5 does say, “I am the vine; you are the branches. Whoever abides in me and I in him, he it is that bears much fruit, for apart from me you can do nothing.” Again, Jesus is using metaphors. How can a person abide in a person? In one sense, it is a mystery, but in another sense, this is referring to us being one with Jesus in action and purpose – we are called to abide in him by also following God. In doing that, in the power of the Holy Spirit, the anointing that we receive by putting our faith in Jesus, Christians will bear much fruit. Of course, apart from Jesus we can do nothing, but that is not because Jesus is so powerful. Again, Jesus could do nothing apart from the Father (John 5:19), and he was not omniscient, omnipresent, or omnipotent according to the Bible. Christians can do nothing apart from him because without Jesus and faith in Jesus we would have no access to God the Father or the Holy Spirit. If Christians received Jesus without God, they would still be in a state of not being able to do anything.

13.  John 7:16-17

^“Jesus answered, “My teaching is not my own. It comes from the one who sent me. ¹⁷ Anyone who chooses to do the will of God will find out whether my teaching comes from God or whether I speak on my own.”

Jesus’ teaching is not his but God’s. Jesus is not speaking on his own authority but God’s. How can Jesus think he is God if he consistently describes himself as distinct from God? He claims to be teaching from God, not speaking on his own. This is very different than the God of the Old Testament, who always spoke on His own authority. This suggests Jesus is not the God of the Old Testament, but a servant and prophet of this God.

14.  John 7:28-29

^“Then Jesus, still teaching in the temple courts, cried out, “Yes, you know me, and you know where I am from. I am not here on my own authority, but he who sent me is true. You do not know him, ²⁹ but I know him because I am from him and he sent me.”

Jesus did not come of his own accord. He was sent by God on God's authority, not his own.

He is not God.

15.  John 7:39

^“By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were later to receive. Up to that time the Spirit had not been given, since Jesus had not yet been glorified.”

The Spirit was not yet given because Jesus was not yet glorified. God does not change (Malachi 3:6). Jesus was not yet glorified – Jesus had to go through the cross and resurrect to be glorified. God does not have to do that as He is perfect and unchanging in glory.

16.  John 8:16

^“But if I do judge, my decisions are true, because I am not alone. I stand with the Father, who sent me.”

Jesus judges along with the Father who sent him – again, the consistent theme is that he is sent by God. God is God. God is sent by no one. Further, God can judge on His own without the backing of anyone else, while Jesus is insinuating here in him standing with the Father his decisions are true.

17.  John 8:28

^“So Jesus said, ‘When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am he and that I do nothing on my own but speak just what the Father has taught me.’”

Jesus does nothing on his own authority – Jesus speaks just as the Father speaks. In contrast, God does everything on His own authority.

Jesus is not God.

18.  John 8:40

“…but now you seek to kill me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God. That is not what Abraham did.”

Jesus is a man who heard truth from God, so he cannot be God Himself. Further, concerning his manhood:

Numbers 23:19

“God is not man, that he should lie, or a son of man, that he should change his mind. Has he said, and will he not do it? Or has he spoken, and will he not fulfill it?”

Genesis 3:15

“I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel.”

Genesis 18:18

“…seeing that Abraham shall surely become a great and mighty nation, and all the nations of the earth shall be blessed in him?”

Genesis 22:18

“…and in your offspring shall all the nations of the earth be blessed, because you have obeyed my voice.”

Genesis 49:10

“The scepter shall not depart from Judah, nor the ruler’s staff from between his feet, until tribute comes to him, and to him shall be the obedience of the peoples.”

Isaiah 11:1-5

“There shall come forth a shoot from the stump of Jesse, and a branch from his roots shall bear fruit. And the Spirit of the Lord shall rest upon him, the Spirit of wisdom and understanding, the Spirit of counsel and might, the Spirit of knowledge and the fear of the Lord. He shall not judge by what his eyes see, or decide disputes by what his ears hear, but with righteousness he shall judge the poor, and decide with equity for the meek of the earth; and he shall strike the earth with the rod of his mouth, and with the breath of his lips he shall kill the wicked. Righteousness shall be the belt of his waist, and faithfulness the belt of his loins.”

If Jesus is God, and God is not a man, why do the prophecies in the Old Testament indicate that Jesus is a man (offspring of Eve, offspring of Abraham, offspring of Judah, offspring of Jesse, etc.)?

Given that the Old Testament prophecies state that Jesus is a man and not God, it seems to follow that he is a man and not God.

If Jesus is God, why does he need the Spirit of the “fear of the Lord”? Does he need to fear himself?

It does not logically make sense for Jesus to “fear the Lord [Yahweh]” if he is Yahweh himself. So, this suggests Jesus is not Yahweh himself; he is a servant of Yahweh.

If Jesus is God, why does he say he is a man who is telling truth that he heard from God?

Why does Jesus see God as distinct from himself? Why does he need to hear truth from God if he is God?

If he says he is a man who is telling truth that he heard from God; I question if Jesus thought he was God Himself, particularly given that he sees God, not just the Father, as distinct from himself. If Jesus does not think he is God Himself, then he is not, as Jesus had the best knowledge of God.

God would also not need to hear truth from God, so this suggests Jesus is not God.

19.  John 8:58

“Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!”

Read out of context, this verse seems to show that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus because he was claiming to be God, the “I am” from the Old Testament (Exodus 3:14). In context, it is evident that is not what Jesus is communicating.

“I am” in Greek is “ego eimi” – I “ego” and am “eimi”. “Eimi” is the Greek verb of being, not a name or identity. This phrase is used almost 300 times in the New Testament. In John 9:9, the blind man Jesus healed is described as consistently saying “I am” – “I am the one [that Jesus healed]”. Jesus also used this phrase in John 4:23-26 in his conversation with the Samaritan woman. In verse 26, he tells hers “I am”, saying he is the Messiah (“John 8:58 before Abraham was born, I am”, 2024).

Jesus says “I am” in John 8 before John 8:58, translators simply translate the Greek phrase differently for clarity. In John 8:24 Jesus says, “Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am [ego eimi] he, you will die in your sins.” In John 8:28 says, Jesus says, “When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am he [ego eimi]…” These two verses could have been translated “I am” looking at the original Greek. Is Jesus saying in these 2 verses that he is God and referring back to Exodus 3, or he is simply using the “to be” verb in Greek? When Jesus says “I am” in these verses, do the Jews think automatically he must be God? The context shows Jesus is using the “to be” verb and the Jews do not think he is God (“John 8:58 before Abraham was born, I am”, 2024).

Jesus also states in John 8:39-40, “They answered and said to him, ‘Abraham is our father.’ Jesus said to them, ‘If you are Abraham’s children, do the deeds of Abraham. ‘But as it is, you are seeing to kill me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God; this Abraham did not do.” 18 verses before the famous quotation “Before Abraham was, I am,” Jesus clearly states that he is a man who heard truth from God. If Jesus thinks he is a man who heard truth FROM God, logically, he is not God himself and he does not think he is.

Eventually in the dialogue, Jesus says, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.” Translators could have translated this differently like they did the other times “ego eimi” was translated in this passage: perhaps, “before Abraham was born, I am the one, or “I am the Son of Man,” etc. Translators translating verse 58 as "before Abraham was born, I am" does lead readers to think of Exodus 3:14 (“John 8:58 before Abraham was born, I am”, 2024).

But this is not what John 8:58 is saying, particularly as the Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament translates “I am that I am” of Exodus 3:14 as “ego eimi ho on”. “Ego eimi”, the phrase that Jesus uses, is still the “to be verb” – not a name or identity. “Ho on” is God’s name according to the Greek translation of the Old Testament, not “ego eimi”. So, if Jesus wanted to intentionally say that he was the God of the Old Testament, he should have said “Ego eimi ho on” – but he did not, and the context shows he was not claiming to be God (“John 8:58 before Abraham was born, I am”, 2024).

Even so, doesn’t this mean that Jesus preexisted before Abraham? Biblical unitarians, who maintain that Jesus is not God, would say no – Jesus just existed in the foreknowledge of God, figuratively preexisting. I think the Bible shows that Jesus preexisted his life in Israel, and that when Jesus said he was before Abraham, that is what he meant without meaning he was God. I reflect on Jesus' preexistence in section 4 of this blog, "God's Only Begotten Son".

Lastly, what about the fact that the text states that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus? If he was not claiming to be God, why would they want to kill him? “Claiming to be God” is not the only option in considering why the religious readers wanted to kill him. As we have seen in Jesus’ murder trial in Matthew, Mark, and Luke, Jesus was killed, not because he claimed to be God, but because he claimed to be God’s Son, the Messiah. Jesus is making claims at this identity throughout John 8. He also tells the religious leaders that their father is the devil in John 8:44, to which they respond by accusing him of having a demon in verse 48. The entire conversation is heated and gets steadily more heated up to verse 58, when Jesus says he preexisted Abraham.  Jesus is, at a minimum, claiming to be greater than Abraham and stating the religious leaders’ father is the devil. They are furious and pick up stones to kill him. Given the context of the whole conversation, this is not surprising, and this is not proof they thought he was claiming to be God.

John 8:58 in no way proves that Jesus is God.

20.    John 10:30

“I and the Father are one.”

John 10:38

“…the Father is in me and I am in the Father.”

John 14:7

“If you had known me, you would have known my Father also. From now on you do know him and have seen him.” 

If Jesus isn’t God, how can him and the Father be one?

If Jesus isn’t God, how can Jesus say that when the disciples see him they see the Father?

In John 14:7, Jesus says, “If you had known me, you would have known my Father also. From now on you do know him and have seen him.” Jesus later on says in verse 8, “Whoever has seen me has seen the Father.” Jesus is the image of the Father (Colossians 1:15). So, he is one with the Father in a unique and powerful way. But does that make him God? As previously mentioned, all believers are called to and will be filled with all the fullness of God (Colossians 2:9-10). 1 John 4:12 says when we love others, God, the Father, abides in us - so, the Father is in Christians too when imitate Christ and live in love. We are being conformed to the image of Christ. When he returns, we will be like him (1 John 3:2) – perhaps, one with the Father ourselves!

Aren’t we all called to be one with God, to be filled with all the fullness of the Spirit? When a person becomes a Christian, they are then “in Christ”, so wouldn’t Christians also be in the Father with Christ, one? How can Jesus being one with God mean he is God if unity with God is a promise for all believers, who, of course, will never be God?

What is more, the Biblical context and Greek clearly shows that John 10:30 is not saying that Jesus and the Father are of the same substance – i.e., both God. The context of this verse is that Jesus is caring for God’s people, the sheep. The Father and him are one in purpose to care for the sheep. The sheep were given to him by the Father (John 10:29), so the sheep are not inherently Jesus’. This shows that Jesus is not God – everything inherently belongs to God. If Jesus was God, he would not need anyone to give him something. Further, Jesus says in John 10:29 that the Father is “greater than all”, which goes against the Trinity doctrine’s position that Jesus and the Father are equal. Jesus does not think that. He thinks the Father is greater than he is, and together they are caring for the sheep.

In this context, Jesus says, “I and the Father are one” (John 10:30). Many think this means that Jesus and God are of the same God-essence. But is this what Jesus was saying by saying him and the Father are one?

“One” in Greek is “hen”, using to describe one thing, or “heis”, used to describe one being. Mark 12:29 says the “Lord our God is One Lord,” and uses the word “heis”, referring to one being. If Jesus was saying that him and God were the same being, he would have said “heis”, not “hen”. But he used “hen”, which in the Greek means Jesus believed the Father and him were united in one thing – one mission and purpose. Many Trinitarian scholars agree with that position, that the oneness described here is not oneness of “essence” (“The Father and I are one: An examination of John 10:30”, 2020).

In conclusion, the Greek word for “one” here also helps to show this is not saying God and Jesus are the same essence.  

21.  John 10:30-42

^“ I and the Father are one.”

³¹ Again his Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him, ³² but Jesus said to them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?”

³³ “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a man, claim to be god.”

³⁴ Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’? ³⁵ If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside— ³⁶ what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? ³⁷ Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father. ³⁸ But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.” ³⁹ Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.

⁴⁰ Then Jesus went back across the Jordan to the place where John had been baptizing in the early days. There he stayed, ⁴¹ and many people came to him. They said, “Though John never performed a sign, all that John said about this man was true.” ⁴² And in that place many believed in Jesus.”

Yet still, in verse 33, the Jews say they are stoning Jesus because he, a mere man, claims to be God. This is not the best translation of this verse from the Greek, however. It should be read, “you, a man, claim to be a god.” Jesus’ response to them uses the same Greek word for God, “theos”, but in our Bibles “theos” is capitalized when the Jews accuse him of being “God”, and not capitalized when Jesus responds to them. Referencing back to John 1:1-4 about the definite article “ho”, when “ho” is not used, “theos” is not referring to Yahweh God. An example of this is in Acts 12:22 when “theos” is used without the article: Herod is called theos without the capital “G”. Another example of this is in Acts 12:22, when Paul is bit by a snake and people think he “was a god”. So, in context and with an understanding of the Greek, the Jews were not saying they thought Jesus was Yahweh, but that he was claiming to be “a god” and “divine”. Without the “ho” definite article, “God” should not be capitalized in English Bibles. Jesus’ response to them shows he does not think they are calling him Yahweh, as he responds as if they are calling him a lesser “god”, not Yahweh (“The Father and I are one: An examination of John 10:30”, 2020).

There are other examples in the Bible where a man is referred to as “god” and God, Yahweh, is not being referred to. For example, God even told Moses that he was making him to be “god” to Pharaoh (Exodus 7:1). God/god is not a word only reserved for deity, as “god” in the Bible can refer to God’s agents who represent Him like Moses or in Psalm 82, the judges and rulers of Israel Jesus refers to as gods in this passage. Jesus quotes Psalm 82, making the point that the Jews should not be upset if he called himself the Son of God, a man who God was working through (“The Father and I are one: An examination of John 10:30”, 2020).

The conversation’s end shows that, in context, it is clear that the Pharisees did not think he was claiming to be Yahweh God, though they wanted to kill him: “Therefore they were seeking again to seize him, and he eluded their grasp. And he went away again beyond the Jordan to the place where John was first baptizing, and He was staying there. Many came to him and were saying, ‘While John performed no sign, yet everything John said about this man was true.’ Many believed in him there” (John 10:39-42). The people believed he was a man, not God. He was the Son of God – a messianic title, and one that all Christian males receive, not God the Son.

This is consistent with Jesus’ trial, when the Pharisees wanted to kill him because he claimed to be the Son of God, not because he was claiming to be God (explained later).

22.  John 13:31-35

“The son of man is glorified, and God is glorified in him. If God is glorified in him, God will also glorify him in himself, and glorify him at once.” 

These verses cannot be logically understood without acknowledging that Jesus is not God, he is separate from God as God is glorified in him, and he does not think he is God.

23.  John 14:1

“Let not your hearts be troubled. Believe in God; believe also in me.”

If Jesus is God, why does he distinguish himself from God in John 14:1, telling his disciples to believe in God and also in him?

Jesus does not think he is God. He sees God and him as 2 separate persons, not just the Father and the Son.

24.  John 14:28

“’You heard me [Jesus] say to you, ‘I am going away, and I will come to you.’ If you loved me, you would have rejoiced, because I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I.’”

1 Corinthians also reveals the Father God as greater than Jesus:

1 Corinthians 3:23

“…and you are Christ’s, and Christ is God’s.”

1 Corinthians 11:3

“But I want you to understand that the head of every man is Christ, the head of a wife is her husband, and the head of Christ is God.” 

If Jesus is God, why does he say the Father is greater than him? If the Trinity doctrine is true, how does this verse make sense in terms of God and Jesus being co-equal?

The Father is greater than him. Jesus does not lie. It seems Jesus and God may not be equal, unless it is possible for two persons to be equal with one being greater than the other.

Even if by the Trinity doctrine that is possible, which I do not think makes sense, Jesus would still not be God, because God by definition is greater than everything and everyone else, and Jesus is less than the Father.

If Jesus is God, why does he belong to God, as stated in 1 Corinthians 3:23 showing them to be distinct?

Paul may not think Christ is God, given that he considers them to be distinct. Further, it is not logical to say, “God is God’s” – what would be the purpose of that statement? “Christ is God’s” is a statement that makes sense only if Christ is not God Himself.

If Jesus is God, why is the head of Christ God? Why are Christ and God again described in 1 Corinthians 11:23 as distinct?

Paul shows here that he does not think Christ and God are the same given their distinction in person, title, and role. If the head of Christ is God, Christ cannot himself be God, that is illogical, and God is logical.

25.  John 16:27

^“No, the Father himself loves you because you have loved me and have believed that I came from God.”

Jesus continues to say that he “came from God”. If he “came from God”, he is not literally God himself. Jesus certainly does not think he is God himself.

26.  John 17:3

Jesus prays to God, “And this is eternal life, that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.”

This verse is one of the clearest proofs that Jesus is not God and does not believe he is. He believes that the Father is the “only true God” – so, the sole and exclusive God.

27.  John 19:6-8 Jesus’ Trial

“As soon as the chief priests and their officials saw him, they shouted, ‘Crucify! Crucify!’

But Pilate answered, “You take him and crucify him. As for me, I find no basis for a charge against him.”

⁷ The Jewish leaders insisted, ‘We have a law, and according to that law he must die, because he claimed to be the Son of God.’”

Just like the other gospels, the testament is that Jesus was crucified not because he claimed to be God or anyone thought he was God: he was crucified because he “made himself the Son of God” (v. 7). This is not a divine title (example, Luke 3:38, Adam is the son of God).

28.  John 20:17

“Jesus said to her, ‘Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.”

This passage brings up a major theme throughout Scripture: that Jesus has a God.

Consider:

Ephesians 4:4-6

“There is one body and one Spirit – just as you were called to the one hope that belongs to your call – one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all.”

Matthew 27:46 [also Mark 15:34]

“And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, ‘Eli, Eli, lema sabachtani?’ that is ‘My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?’”

Revelation 3:12

“The one who conquers, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God. Never shall he go out of it, and I will write on him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down from my God out of heaven, and my own new name.”

Revelation 1:5-6

“…and from Jesus Christ the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of the kings on earth. To him who loves us and has freed us from our sins by his blood and made us a kingdom, priests to his God and Father, to him be glory and dominion ever and ever. Amen.”

Micah 5:4

“And he shall stand and shepherd his flock in the strength of the Lord, in the majesty of the name of the Lord his God. And they shall dwell secure, for now he shall be great to the ends of the earth.”

John 17:3

“[Jesus said], And this is eternal life, that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.”

John 5:44-45

“[Jesus said] How can you believe, when you receive glory from one another and do not seek the glory that comes from the only God? Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father. There is one who accuses you: Moses, on whom you have set your hope.”

Isaiah 44:6

“Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the Lord of hosts: ‘I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god.’”

If Jesus is God, and there is no other God besides the Lord, the King of Israel, why does Jesus have a God?

It seems Jesus is not God given he both has a God and there is no other God besides the God he has.

Jesus is not God if he worships God, the same God as the Church. As a devout Jew, Jesus could only mean his God is the God of Israel.

These verses do not make sense if the Trinity is true. If Jesus is God, how would him, Mary, and the disciples have the same God, referenced in John 20? Orthodox Christian teaching says that Jesus and his disciples do NOT have the same God – Jesus, in fact, is our God. This directly contradicts Scripture.

If Jesus is God, why in Ephesian 4:4-6 is Jesus the Lord distinct from the one God?

He is Lord, distinct from one God, because Paul does not seem, based on these verses, to believe that Jesus is God.

If Jesus is God, why in Micah 5:4 will he shepherd people in the strength of the Lord, instead of his own strength if he is God?

Again, Jesus is dependent on God here, which suggests he is not God because he is a dependent man.

If Jesus is God, why does he call God the only true God in John 17:3 and the only God in John 5:44?

These may be two of the most explicit proofs that point to Jesus not being God. He himself states twice that God (the Father) is the only God. It seems the only logical conclusion to those statements is that Jesus is not God and he does not think he is.

29.  John 20:28

“Thomas answered him, ‘My Lord and my God!’ Jesus said to him, ‘Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.”

If Jesus isn’t God, why does Thomas call him “my God”?

If Jesus isn’t God, why didn’t Jesus correct Thomas’ statement if what he said was false?

1)     In isolation, it seems Jesus must be God. But what about in context? Nothing in John’s gospel up to this point has suggested that Jesus is God. Jesus has been clear that he is not God to his disciples. God’s Word never contradicts itself, so further insight is needed.

Prior to Thomas seeing Jesus, he said he would only believe if he saw Jesus in the flesh (John 20:24-29). This type of seeing, given the Greek word for seeing, “horao”, could mean literally seeing Jesus or “perceiving/discerning” him, understanding him (“John 20:28 – My Lord and my God”, 2019).

Throughout the Bible, we read that God cannot be seen by anyone (Exodus 33:20, 1 John 4:12a). Notably, 1 John 4:12a states, “No one has seen God at any time…”, and was written by the same man who wrote in John 20:28 that Thomas had seen God. John wrote this after thousands of people had seen Jesus, and over 400 had seen him at his resurrection. The Bible seems to contradict itself if Thomas is saying he saw God when multiple passages say God cannot be seen and has never been seen (“John 20:28 – My Lord and my God”, 2019). As the Bible never contradicts itself, how else could this passage be understood?

Jesus said in John 12:45, “He who sees me sees the One who sent me.” “See” in the Greek is “theoreo” and can mean comprehending or knowing. Colossians 1:15 says that “Jesus is the image of the invisible God” – he is the image of God who cannot be seen. Jesus is God’s representative. This fits with John 12:45’s theme: when we see Jesus, we see God (“John 20:28 – My Lord and my God”, 2019).

In John 14:3-7, Jesus explains to the disciples that in seeing and knowing him they see and know God. Jesus has made it clear he is not God the Father, but as the Father’s representative Jesus says that those who have seen him have seen the Father. When Jesus is resurrected and finally appears to Thomas, Thomas’ response “My Lord and my God!” shows that Thomas finally understands that Jesus is the image of the invisible God and is the one who is revealing the Father. He “sees his Lord and perceives his God” (“John 20:28 – My Lord and my God”, 2019).

This synchs with Peter’s perspective of Jesus appearing to others in Acts 10:40-41, “God raised him up on the third day and granted that he become visible, not to all the people, but to witnesses who were chosen beforehand by God, that is, to us who ate and drank with him after he arose from the dead.” Peter explains here that God and Jesus are distinct, and Jesus visibly appeared to many people, of course including Thomas (“John 20:28 – My Lord and my God”, 2019). Thomas saw his Lord literally and his God figuratively in seeing Jesus’ resurrection from the dead.

2)  Thomas didn’t say “YOU ARE my Lord and my God.” What if he said this statement using two different titles because he was referring to 2 different individuals? What if he was honoring the Son and the Father both by acknowledging the former as his Lord and latter as his God?

Historically, Yahweh and the chosen human king were closely connected from the people’s perspective. Kings ruled on God’s behalf and by his authority. In 1 Chronicles 29:20, David AND Yahweh were “worshiped” together. In 2 Samuel 18:28, Ahimaaz bowed before David and said “Blessed be the Lord your God, who has delivered up the men who raised their hand against my lord the king” (Examiner, 2022).

Cursing God was also connected with cursing the king. 1 Kings 21:9-10 says that, referring to two worthless men opposite him, “You have cursed God and the king.” A similar sentiment is expressed in Isaiah 8:20-22 (Examiner, 2022).

In referring to the time of Jesus, Jeremiah 30:7-9 says they “shall serve the Lord their God and David their king, whom I will raise up for them.” Hosea 3:5 refers to the same time, talking about “Lord their God, and David their king.” So, in the last days, Israel would serve 2 figures, Yahweh and a king from the line of David, Jesus (Examiner, 2022). So, this “God and king” pattern continues in the New Testament, with God referring to God and the king referring to the “Lord” Jesus (1 Corinthians 8:6, James 1:1, Gal. 1:3, Eph. 1:2, Phil. 1:2, 1 Thess. 3:11).

In John 14:1-5, Jesus tells his disciples to believe in 2 different figures: God and him, clarifying that God is someone besides him. Thomas in response calls Jesus “Lord”. Mary tells Thomas and the other disciples that she has “seen the Lord” and that he was ascending to “his God” – Jesus’ God. Perhaps Thomas honored Jesus and God together in the historic pattern of God and king acknowledged together in his confession (Examiner, 2022).

3)    Thomas was confessing what Jesus taught him: that to see Jesus is to see the Father (John 14:10-11, John 12:44-45).

Thomas did not mean Jesus was God. Just because you say something directly to someone does not mean they are that thing. Thomas said those words to Jesus – this does not mean he called him “God”. This happened in Matthew 16:21-23 when Jesus called Peter “Satan”. Obviously, Peter was not literally “Satan”. Perhaps here, Jesus is not literally “God” (“The Trinity Delusion: John 20:28”).

Greek grammar is helpful in understanding this passage. Thomas said “The Lord of me and the God of me”. If Thomas had said “the Lord and God of me”, the Trinitarian claim would carry much more weight that Jesus is indeed God. Thomas used a language convention to indicate that he was referring to two persons.  Verse 17 of the same chapter says, “the Father of you and Father of me and God of you and God of me.” This kind of language a Greek speaker would use to refer to one person. John was selective about his language structures. John did not use the “one person” language structure in this verse (“The Trinity Delusion: John 20:28”).

Also, again in context, considering verse 17, Jesus says to Mary to tell his disciples he is going to “my God and your God”. When Thomas says to Jesus in the SAME CHAPTER, “My Lord and my God,” Thomas must be referring to that same God Jesus mentioned that they share only a handful of verses before. This fits well with what Jesus said earlier, that “He who has seen ME has seen the FATHER” (“The Trinity Delusion: John 20:28”).

John 20:28 highlights that to see Jesus was not to see just one person but two persons – Jesus their Lord, and their God and Father. When they saw Jesus, they saw the Father, which was a major theme of the entire book of John.  Jesus was the image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15). Notably, all Christians are being conformed into the image of Christ (Romans 8:29). In eternity, all Christians will be the image of the invisible God. Seeing any Christian will be like seeing God. I address this biblical idea in detail in section 5 of this blog, "Images of the Invisible God."

Conclusion: There is 0 evidence in the book of John that Jesus is God. The following passages throw it into dispute, but when taken in context, the meaning is clear: John is not saying Jesus is God (John 1:1-4, John 1:10, John 1:18, John 8:58, John 10:30, John 20:28).